📜 Constitutional & Polity PYQs

Based on official themes · UPSC Previous Years · All options + correct answers

✅ 92 unique questions | Constitutional framework | Parliament | President | Judiciary | DPSP | Economy

Q1CSE 2020

A constitutional government by definition is a:

(a) government by legislature

(b) popular government

(c) multi-party government

(d) limited government ✓ correct

✅ Correct answer: (d) limited government

Q2CSE 2023

Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the 'Constitution' of a country?

(a) It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.

(b) It enables the creation of political offices and a government.

(c) It defines and limits the powers of government. ✓ correct

(d) It secures social justice, social equality and social security.

✅ Correct answer: (c) It defines and limits the powers of government.

Q3CSE 2019

Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?

(a) Third Schedule

(b) Fifth Schedule ✓ correct

(c) Ninth Schedule

(d) Twelfth Schedule

✅ Correct answer: (b) Fifth Schedule

Q4CSE 2022

If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one best reflects the consequence?

(a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people. ✓ correct

(b) This would create a local self-governing body in that area.

(c) This would convert that area into a Union Territory.

(d) The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State.

✅ Correct answer: (a) prevents transfer of tribal land to non-tribal people

Q5CSE 2025

With reference to Scheduled Area under Fifth Schedule, consider statements:
I. State Government loses executive power, local body assumes total admin.
II. Union Govt can take over administration on Governor's recommendations.

(a) I only

(b) II only

(c) Both I and II

(d) Neither I nor II ✓ correct

✅ Correct answer: (d) Neither I nor II

Q6CSE 2022

Consider statements regarding Constitutional Amendment Bills:
1. Requires prior recommendation of President.
2. President obligatory to give assent.
3. Passed by special majority, no joint sitting.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only ✓ correct

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

✅ Correct answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Q7CSE 2024

Which statements about Constitution of India are correct?
1. Powers of Municipalities in Part IX A.
2. Emergency provisions in Part XVIII.
3. Amendment provisions in Part XX.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 ✓ correct

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

✅ Correct answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3

Q8CSE 2020

The Preamble to the Constitution of India is:

(a) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect

(b) not a part of the Constitution and has no legal effect either

(c) a part and has same legal effect as any other part

(d) a part but has no legal effect independently of other parts ✓ correct

✅ Correct answer: (d) part of Constitution but no independent legal effect

Q9CSE 2021

What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950?

(a) A Democratic Republic

(b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic ✓ correct

(c) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic

(d) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic

✅ Correct answer: (b) Sovereign Democratic Republic

Q10CSE 2021

'Right to Privacy' is protected under which Article of the Constitution of India?

(a) Article 15

(b) Article 19

(c) Article 21 ✓ correct

(d) Article 29

✅ Correct answer: (c) Article 21

Q11CSE 2020

In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by:

(a) the Preamble of the Constitution

(b) a Directive Principle of State Policy ✓ correct

(c) the Seventh Schedule

(d) the conventional practice

✅ Correct answer: (b) Directive Principle of State Policy

Q12CSE 2025

Consider pairs: I. Separation of Judiciary from Executive → Directive Principles; II. Valuing rich heritage → Fundamental Duties; III. Prohibition of child labour (under 14) → Fundamental Rights. How many correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All the three ✓ correct

(d) None

✅ Correct answer: (c) All three correctly matched

Q13CSE 2022

With reference to writs: 1. Mandamus not lie against private org unless public duty. 2. Mandamus not lie against Government Company. 3. Any public minded person can move for Quo Warranto.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only ✓ correct

(d) 1,2 and 3

✅ Correct answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Q14CSE 2024

A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by Supreme Court or High Courts to:

(a) government officer prohibiting a particular action

(b) Parliament to pass a law

(c) the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings ✓ correct

(d) Government prohibiting unconstitutional policy

✅ Correct answer: (c) lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings

Q15CSE 2022

With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha: 1. Election date fixed by Speaker. 2. Must be from opposition or ruling party (mandatory). 3. Deputy Speaker has same powers as Speaker, no appeal. 4. Motion moved by Speaker & seconded by PM. Which correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only ✓ correct

(b) 1,2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 2 and 4 only

✅ Correct answer: (a) 1 and 3 only

Q16CSE 2019

While resolution for removal of Speaker of Lok Sabha under consideration: 1. He/She shall not preside. 2. He/She shall not have right to speak. 3. He/She shall not vote in first instance.

(a) 1 only ✓ correct

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

✅ Correct answer: (a) 1 only

Q17CSE 2020

Statements regarding Speaker: I. On dissolution, Speaker continues till first meeting after dissolution. II. Speaker resigns from political party immediately on election. III. Removal by resolution with 14 days notice & majority of all then members.

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(c) I and III only ✓ correct

(d) I, II and III

✅ Correct answer: (c) I and III only

Q18CSE 2021

Consider statements: 1. If question of disqualification under 10th Schedule, President's decision on opinion of Council of Ministers final. 2. No mention of 'political party' in Constitution.

(a) I only

(b) II only

(c) Both I and II

(d) Neither I nor II ✓ correct

✅ Correct answer: (d) Neither I nor II

Q19CSE 2020

Anti-defection law: 1. Nominated legislator cannot join any party within 6 months. 2. Law does not provide time-frame for presiding officer to decide defection case.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only ✓ correct

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

✅ Correct answer: (b) 2 only

Q20CSE 2023

Finance Bill and Money Bill: 1. Rajya Sabha can amend/reject Finance Bill. 2. Rajya Sabha cannot amend/reject Money Bill, only recommendations. 3. No joint sitting for Money Bill, joint sitting necessary for Finance Bill.

(a) Only one

(b) Only two ✓ correct

(c) All three

(d) None

✅ Correct answer: (b) Only two (statements 1 and 2 correct)

Q21CSE 2022

Which statements correct about Money Bill? 1. Article 109 special procedure. 2. Not introduced in Council of States. 3. Rajya Sabha can approve or suggest changes, cannot reject. 4. Amendments suggested must be accepted by Lok Sabha.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1,2 and 3 ✓ correct

(d) 1,3 and 4

✅ Correct answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3

Q22CSE 2020

Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in:

(a) matter of creating new All India Services

(b) amending the Constitution ✓ correct

(c) removal of government

(d) making cut motions

✅ Correct answer: (b) amending the Constitution

Q23CSE 2021

Which is/are exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha? 1. Ratify declaration of Emergency. 2. Pass no-confidence motion against Council of Ministers. 3. Impeach President.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only ✓ correct

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

✅ Correct answer: (b) 2 only

Q24CSE 2025

With reference to Indian polity, statements on Ordinance: I. Can amend any Central Act. II. Can abridge Fundamental Right. III. Can come into effect from back date.

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(c) I and III only ✓ correct

(d) I, II and III

✅ Correct answer: (c) I and III only

Q25CSE 2025

Pardoning power of President: I. Subject to limited judicial review. II. Can be exercised without advice of Central Government.

(a) I only ✓ correct

(b) II only

(c) Both I and II

(d) Neither I nor II

✅ Correct answer: (a) I only

Q26CSE 2023

Consider statements: 1. If President's election void, all acts done before decision become invalid. 2. President election postponed if some Assemblies dissolved. 3. Constitution prescribes time limit for President's assent to Bills.

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None ✓ correct

✅ Correct answer: (d) None

Q27CSE 2020

CAG: 1. Submits audit reports of Union to President. 2. Reports examined by Public Accounts Committee. 3. No Minister can represent CAG in Parliament.

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three ✓ correct

(d) None

✅ Correct answer: (c) All three

Q28CSE 2018

With reference to Finance Commission of India, which statement is correct?

(a) Encourages foreign capital inflow

(b) Facilitates distribution among PSUs

(c) Ensures transparency in financial administration

(d) None of (a),(b),(c) is correct ✓ correct

✅ Correct answer: (d) None of the above statements is correct

Q29CSE 2024

Which bodies do NOT find mention in Constitution? 1. National Development Council. 2. Planning Commission (NITI Aayog). 3. Zonal Councils.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 ✓ correct

✅ Correct answer: (d) 1,2 and 3

Q30CSE 2022

Discretionary powers of Governor: 1. Sending report for President's rule. 2. Appointing Ministers. 3. Reserving bills for President. 4. Making rules for business of State Government.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only ✓ correct

(c) 2,3 and 4 only

(d) 1,2,3 and 4

✅ Correct answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

Q31CSE 2022

Which among the following are Fundamental Duties? 1. Preserve rich heritage. 2. Protect weaker sections from injustice. 3. Develop scientific temper. 4. Strive for excellence.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only ✓ correct

(d) 1,2,3 and 4

✅ Correct answer: (c) 1, 3 and 4 only

Q32CSE 2024

Indicators used by Finance Commission for horizontal devolution: 1. Demographic performance. 2. Forest and ecology. 3. Tax and fiscal efforts. 4. Income distance.

(a) 1,2 and 3 only

(b) 2,3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1,2,3 and 4 ✓ correct

✅ Correct answer: (d) 1,2,3 and 4

Q33CSE 2024

Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 added which languages to Eighth Schedule? 1. Konkani 2. Manipuri 3. Nepali 4. Maithili

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1,2 and 4

(c) 1,2 and 3 ✓ correct

(d) 2,3 and 4

✅ Correct answer: (c) 1,2 and 3 (Konkani, Manipuri, Nepali)

Q34CSE 2017/2025

Election Commission: 1. Five-member body. 2. Home Ministry decides election schedule. 3. EC resolves disputes relating to splits/mergers of political parties.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only ✓ correct

(d) 2 and 3 only

✅ Correct answer: (c) 3 only

Q35CSE 2025

Which bodies established by Constitution? 1. National Commission for SCs. 2. National Commission for STs. 3. National Commission for Backward Classes. 4. National Human Rights Commission.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1,2 and 3 only

(c) 1,2 and 4 only

(d) 1,2,3 and 4 ✓ correct

✅ Correct answer: (d) 1,2,3 and 4

Q36CSE 2021

Functions of Cabinet Secretariat: 1. Agenda for Cabinet Meetings. 2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees. 3. Allocation of financial resources to Ministries.

(a) 1 and 2 only ✓ correct

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

✅ Correct answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Q37CSE 2024

Seventh Schedule: 1. Union List contains more subjects than State List. 2. Parliament and State Legislatures have concurrent power over Concurrent List.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓ correct

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

✅ Correct answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Q38CSE 2015

In India, which is responsible for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation?

(a) Department of Consumer Affairs

(b) Expenditure Management Commission

(c) Financial Stability and Development Council

(d) Reserve Bank of India ✓ correct

✅ Correct answer: (d) Reserve Bank of India

Q39CSE 2022

Indian economy: 1. If inflation too high, RBI likely to buy govt securities. 2. If rupee depreciating, RBI likely to sell dollars. 3. If US/EU interest rates fall, likely to induce RBI to buy dollars.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only ✓ correct

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

✅ Correct answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Q40CSE 2019/2021

'Money Multiplier' in an economy increases with which one of the following?

(a) Increase in Cash Reserve Ratio

(b) Increase in Statutory Liquidity Ratio

(c) Increase in banking habit of the population ✓ correct

(d) Increase in population of the country

✅ Correct answer: (c) Increase in banking habit of the population

Q41CSE 2024

Which is NOT a part of 'Tier 1 Capital' of a bank?

(a) Paid-up share capital

(b) Statutory reserves

(c) Disclosed free reserves

(d) Subordinated debt ✓ correct

✅ Correct answer: (d) Subordinated debt

Q42CSE 2024

Under which Article of the Constitution has the Supreme Court placed the Right to Privacy?

(a) Article 15

(b) Article 16

(c) Article 19

(d) Article 21 ✓ correct

✅ Correct answer: (d) Article 21

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