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CBSE CLASS XII BIOLOGY 2025(THEORY)

CBSE Class 12 Biology (VI) 2025 - Infographic Dashboard
Series: Z4WYX | SET-5 | Q.P. Code: 57(B)

CBSE CLASS XII BIOLOGY (THEORY)

Exclusively Formatted for Visually Impaired Candidates | Board Examination 2025
Duration: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 70
Items: 33 Questions
Status: 100% Solved
⚡ Top 10 Core High-Frequency Concepts Dashboard

1. Microsporogenesis

Formed via meiotic division of the diploid Pollen Mother Cell (PMC).

2. Chargaff's Rule

Calculates exact base proportions in double-stranded DNA (A+G = T+C).

3. Operon Control

Lac operon regulation by its native repressor is purely negative control.

4. Non-Mendelian Sex

ZW (female) / ZZ (male) sex determination system occurs naturally in Birds/Fowl.

5. Growth Kinetics

Logistic models define sustainable growth bounded by Carrying Capacity (K).

6. Bioactive Molecules

Cyclosporin A (Fungus) & Statins (Yeast) provide essential medical benefits.

7. Vector Engineering

Plasmids provide key extrachromosomal circular DNA loops for cloning inserts.

8. Adaptive Radiation

Species divergence from a single common ancestor into separate ecological niches.

9. Immune Memory

Acquired immunity provides heightened secondary/anamnestic protection.

📋 Exam Regulatory Framework
General Instructions & Structural Blueprint:
  • The assessment framework spans exactly 33 compulsory questions mapped into five distinctive strategic sections.
  • Section A: Q1 to Q16 (Multiple Choice Questions; 1 Mark each).
  • Section B: Q17 to Q21 (Very Short Answer Type; 2 Marks each with internal choice).
  • Section C: Q22 to Q28 (Short Answer Type; 3 Marks each).
  • Section D: Q29 and Q30 (Case-Based Integrated Tasks; 4 Marks each).
  • Section E: Q31 to Q33 (Long Answer Core Inquiries; 5 Marks each).
  • 15 minutes of mandatory reading buffer space is officially allotted from 10:15 a.m. to 10:30 a.m. prior to writing.
🟣 Section A: Objective & Analytical Multiple Choice
Q1.Microspores are formed by:
प्र. 1.जिस प्रक्रिया द्वारा लघुबीजाणु बनते हैं, वह है :
(A) Meiosis of pollen mother cell / पराग मातृकोशिका का अर्धसूत्री विभाजन
(B) Mitosis of polar nuclei / ध्रुवीय केन्द्रक का समसूत्री विभाजन
(C) Mitosis of pollen mother cell / पराग मातृकोशिका का समसूत्री विभाजन
(D) Meiosis of tapetal cells / टेपीटम की कोशिकाओं का अर्धसूत्री विभाजन
Biological Mechanism: Microsporogenesis involves the reductional cell division (meiosis) of the diploid microspore mother cell (or pollen mother cell) to give rise to haploid microspore tetrads.
Q2.Which scientist's observation helps us to calculate the expected proportion of bases in a double-stranded DNA?
प्र. 2.किस वैज्ञानिक का प्रेक्षण हमें द्विरज्जुकीय डीएनए में क्षारों के प्रत्याशित अनुपात का परिकलन करने में सहायक है ?
(A) James Watson / जेम्स वाटसन
(B) Matthew Meselson / मैथ्यू मेसेल्सन
(C) Rosalind Franklin / रोजलिण्ड फ्रैंकलिन
(D) Erwin Chargaff / इर्वิน चारगाफ़
Molecular Context: Chargaff's rules state that in any double-stranded DNA molecule, the ratio of Adenine to Thymine and Guanine to Cytosine is always equal (A = T and G = C).
Q3.IUD used by females as contraceptive device is:
प्र. 3.स्त्रियों द्वारा उपयोग की जाने वाली गर्भनिरोधक युक्ति आईयूडी (IUD) है :
(A) Pill / पिल
(B) Diaphragm / डायाफ्राम
(C) Multiload 375 / मल्टीलोड 375
(D) Vault / वॉल्ट
Contraceptive Classification: Multiload 375 is a copper-releasing Intrauterine Device (IUD) that suppresses sperm motility and fertilizing capacity.
Q4.RNA was considered as the first genetic material. Out of the evidences listed below, point out the correct evidence:
प्र. 4.आरएनए को पहला (प्रथम) आनुवंशिक पदार्थ माना जाता था । निम्नलिखित सूचीबद्ध प्रमाणों में से सही प्रमाण चुनिए :
(A) Essential life processes do not involve RNA / अनिवार्य जैव प्रक्रमों में आरएनए सम्मिलित नहीं होता है
(B) RNA is a double-stranded structure / आरएनए एक द्विरज्जुकीय संरचना है
(C) RNA can act as catalysts / आरएनए उत्प्रेरक के रूप में क्रियाशील है
(D) RNA, like protein enzymes, are stable / प्रोटीन एंज़ाइमों की तरह आरएनए स्थाई पदार्थ हैं
Evolutionary Clue: The discovery of ribozymes demonstrated that RNA can act as a catalyst, proving it had both informational storage capabilities and catalytic actions required for primordial life.
Q5.Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred to as which of the following type of regulation?
प्र. 5.दमनकारी द्वारा लैक प्रचालेक (लैक ओपेरॉन) का नियमन निम्नलिखित में से किस प्रकार का नियमन माना जाता है ?
(A) Both positive and negative regulation / धनात्मक तथा ऋणात्मक नियमन दोनों
(B) Only negative regulation / केवल ऋणात्मक नियमन
(C) Only positive regulation / केवल धनात्मक नियमन
(D) Sometimes positive, sometimes negative regulation / कभी धनात्मक तथा कभी ऋणात्मक नियमन
Gene Regulation Rules: Because the binding of the active repressor protein to the operator region shuts down the transcription pathway of structural genes, it is strictly classified as negative regulation.
Q6.Which of the following options is a Stop codon?
प्र. 6.निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा विकल्प रोध प्रकूट है ?
(A) UUU
(B) UGA
(C) UGU
(D) UAC
Mnemonic: UAA, UAG, UGA = Stop Codons
Q7.A disorder caused due to the absence of one of the 'X' chromosomes, i.e. 45 with XO is known as:
प्र. 7.एक 'X' क्रोमोसोम के अभाव अर्थात् 45 क्रोमोसोम की XO की स्थिति से होने वाला विकार है :
(A) Down's syndrome / डाउन सिंड्रोम
(B) Klinefelter's syndrome / क्लाइनफेल्टर सिंड्रोम
(C) Turner's syndrome / टर्नर सिंड्रोम
(D) Thalassemia / थैलेसीमिया
Common Error: Do not confuse Turner's (XO, Monosomy) with Klinefelter's (XXY, Trisomy) or Down's syndrome (Trisomy 21).
Q8.The bioactive molecules are matched with their source organism and functions. Select the incorrect pair:
प्र. 8.जैवसक्रिय अणुओं का मिलान उनके स्रोत जीव तथा प्रकार्यों (उपयोग) के साथ किया गया है। ग़लत युग्म का चयन कीजिए :
(A) Fungus - Cyclosporin A, Immunosuppressive agent / कवक - साइक्लोस्पोरिन ए, प्रतिरक्षा निरोधक कारक
(B) Yeast - Statins, Blood-cholesterol lowering agent / यीस्ट - स्टेटिन, रक्त-कॉलेस्टेरॉल को कम करने वाले कारक
(C) Fungus - Streptokinase, Clot buster / कवक - स्ट्रैप्टोकाइनेज़, थक्का स्फोटन
(D) Microbes - Enzyme, Lipase, used in detergent formulations / रोगाणु - एंज़ाइम, लाइपेज, डिटर्जेंट के निर्माण में प्रयुक्त
Correction Note: Streptokinase is produced by the bacterium Streptococcus, not by a fungus. Hence, pair C is incorrect.
Q9.Which one of the following exhibits ZW (female) and ZZ (male) chromosome type of sex-determination?
प्र. 9.निम्नलिखित में से किन जीवों में क्रोमोसोम ZW (मादा) तथा क्रोमोसोम ZZ (नर) प्रकार का लिंग-निर्धारण परिलक्षित होता है ?
(A) Grasshopper / टिड्डा
(B) Drosophila / ड्रोसोफिला
(C) Fowl (Birds) / कुक्कुट (पक्षी)
(D) Humans / मानव
Q10.Species which have diverged after origin from common ancestor giving rise to new species, adapted to new habitats and ways of life is called:
प्र. 10.एक उभयनिष्ठ पूर्वज से विकसित (बनी) नई प्रजाति विभिन्न भू-भौगोलिक क्षेत्रों में उत्प्रवासित हो गई तथा वहीं के आवास में पर्यानुकूलित हो, नई स्पीशीज़ (प्रजाति) का उद्भासन हुआ। यह विधा कहलाती है :
(A) Adaptive radiation / अनुकूली विकिरण
(B) Divergent evolution / अपसारी विकास
(C) Convergent evolution / अभिसारी विकास
(D) Mutation / उत्परिवर्तन
Q11.Which of the following given options serves as an inoculum in sewage treatment plants?
प्र. 11.मलजल उपचार संयंत्रों में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा विकल्प एक निवेश द्रव्य की तरह कार्य करता है ?
(A) A small part of activated sludge / सक्रियित आपंक का छोटा सा भाग
(B) A small part of primary sludge / प्राथमिक आपंक का छोटा सा भाग
(C) Aerobic microbes / वायुजीवी (वायवीय) सूक्ष्मजीव
(D) Floating debris / तैरते हुए कूड़े-करकट
Q12.Select the correct option about plasmid from the given options:
प्र. 12.दिए गए विकल्पों से प्लाज्मिड के संबंध में सही विकल्प चुनिए :
(A) Extrachromosomal circular DNA / गोलाकार गुणसूत्र बाह्य डीएनए
(B) Double-stranded chromosomal DNA / द्विरज्जुकीय गुणसूत्रीय डीएनए
(C) Single stranded rRNA / एकल रज्जुक r-आरएनए
(D) Single stranded tRNA / एकल रज्जुक t-आरएनए
Assertion (A) & Reason (R) Decision Framework:
• Select (A) if both A and R are true and R explains A perfectly.
• Select (B) if both A and R are true but R does not explain A.
• Select (C) if A is true but R is completely false.
• Select (D) if A is false but R is entirely true.
Q13.
Assertion (A): Pollen grains are well preserved as fossils.
Reason (R): Fossils are formed only from bones and teeth of animals.
प्र. 13.
अभिकथन (A): परागकण जीवाश्मों के रूप में भली-भाँति संरक्षित होते हैं ।
कारण (R): जीवाश्चम केवल जन्तुओं की अस्थियों तथा दाँतों से बनते हैं ।
(A) Both A and R true, R is correct explanation
(B) Both A and R true, R is not correct explanation
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false / (A) सही है, परन्तु (R) ग़लत है
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true
Reason Validation: Pollen grain exine is composed of sporopollenin, one of the most resistant organic compounds. Reason is completely false because plants and microfossils exist abundantly.
Q14.
Assertion (A): The template strand has the polarity of 5' to 3' and sequences are same as RNA (except thymine at the place of uracil).
Reason (R): The strand that is referred to as coding strand does not code for anything.
प्र. 14.
अभिकथन (A): टेम्प्लेट रज्जुक की ध्रुवणता 5' से 3' की ओर होती है तथा अनुक्रम आरएनए के समान होते हैं (सिवाय इसके कि यूरेसिल के स्थान पर थाइमीन होता है)।
कारण (R): जिस रज्जुक को कूटलेखन (कोडिंग) रज्जुक कहते हैं वह किसी पदार्थ का कूटलेखन नहीं करता है।
(A) Both A and R true, R is correct explanation
(B) Both A and R true, R is not correct explanation
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true / (A) ग़लत है, परन्तु (R) सही है
Clarification: The template strand actually has 3' to 5' polarity. The coding strand runs 5' to 3' and shares sequence identity with RNA (with T instead of U). Therefore, Assertion A is completely false.
Q15.
Assertion (A): Antibiotics are chemical substances, which are produced by some microbes and can kill or retard the growth of other disease-causing microbes.
Reason (R): All micro-organisms like fungi, bacteria, protozoans are used to produce antibiotics.
प्र. 15.
अभिकथन (A): प्रतिप्रतिजैविक (ऐंटीबायोटिक) एक प्रकार के रासायनिक पदार्थ हैं, जिनका निर्माण कुछ सूक्ष्मजीवों द्वारा होता है और जो अन्य रोगकारक सूक्ष्मजीवों की वृद्धि को मंद कर सकते हैं, अथवा उन्हें मार सकते हैं।
कारण (R): कवक, जीवाणु, प्रोटोजोआ जैसे सभी सूक्ष्मजीवों का उपयोग प्रतिजैविकों के उत्पादन के लिए किया जाता है।
(A) Both A and R true, R is correct explanation
(B) Both A and R true, R is not correct explanation
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false / (A) सही है, परन्तु (R) ग़लत है
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true
Microbial Truth: Protozoans do not produce commercial medical antibiotics. Antibiotics are predominantly sourced from specific strains of fungi and bacteria.
Q16.
Assertion (A): Single-stranded portions of RNA are known as sticky ends.
Reason (R): DNA fragments with the same kind of sticky ends can be joined together using DNA ligases.
प्र. 16.
अभिकथन (A): आरएनए के एकल-रज्जुकीय भागों को चिपचिपे छोर कहा जाता है ।
कारण (R): डीएनए लाइगेज का उपयोग करके एकसमान प्रकार के 'चिपचिपे छोर' वाले डीएनए खंडों को एक साथ जोड़ा जा सकता है ।
(A) Both A and R true, R is correct explanation
(B) Both A and R true, R is not correct explanation
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true / (A) ग़लत है, परन्तु (R) सही है
Biotech Correction: Sticky ends refer to the overhanging single-stranded portions of DNA generated by restriction endonucleases, not native running functional RNA.
🟣 Section B: Analytical Very Short Answer Tasks
Q17 (a). (i) What is the ploidy of primary spermatocytes and secondary spermatocytes? (ii) Point out one difference in first meiotic division of spermatogenesis and oogenesis.
Solution Matrix:
(i) Ploidy Status: Primary spermatocytes are diploid (2n), while secondary spermatocytes are haploid (n).
(ii) Meiotic Execution Disparity: In spermatogenesis, the first meiotic division is an equal division producing two equal haploid cells. In oogenesis, it is a highly unequal division producing a large secondary oocyte and a tiny, non-functional first polar body.
OR (b) (i) Mention the function of trophoblast in the human embryo.
Solution: The outer trophoblast layer serves to attach the blastocyst securely to the maternal uterine endometrium wall, subsequently differentiating into parts of the placenta.
Q18 (a). How does polygenic inheritance show deviation from Mendelian inheritance?
Solution: Mendelian inheritance deals with discrete, distinct qualitative phenotypic traits governed by single genes with contrasting alleles. Polygenic inheritance deviates by displaying continuous variations where a single phenotype is controlled cumulatively by multiple independent genes (e.g., human skin tone).
OR (b) Explain briefly the two non-Mendelian patterns of inheritance that are observed in blood groups of humans.
Mechanisms:
1. Co-dominance: Alleles IA and IB express simultaneously in an AB individual.
2. Multiple Allelism: The single trait is governed by more than two alternative alleles (IA, IB, i) inside a given collective population.
Q19. What function is performed by tears shed by our eyes? Which type of barrier is this in the process of immunity? Give another similar example.
Immunological Profile: Tears contain lysozymes that actively hydrolyze cell walls of opportunistic bacteria entering the eyes. This is categorized as a Physiological Barrier of innate immunity. Another classical example includes gastric hydrochloric acid (HCl) in the stomach or saliva in the mouth.
Q20. Name and explain in brief one method which is used to introduce alien DNA into an animal cell and plant cell respectively.
Animal Cell Vector-less Ingress
Plant Cell Vector-less Ingress
Micro-injection: Recombinant DNA target loops are directly micro-injected into the functional nucleus of an animal cell using an ultra-fine glass pipette.
Biolistics / Gene Gun: High-velocity micro-particles of gold or tungsten coated with target DNA loops are bombarded directly into intact plant cells.
Q21 (a). Describe the population logistic growth model and provide its equation.
Population Dynamics: Real-world resources are finite. Growth accelerates initially, then levels off asymptotically as populations approach environmental constraints known as Carrying Capacity (K). This produces a characteristic Sigmoid (S-shaped) curve.
dN / dt = rN [ (K - N) / K ]
Where N = population density, r = intrinsic rate of natural increase, and K = carrying capacity.
OR (b) Explain this process of decomposition of detritus till the formation of humus.
Decomposition Timeline Steps:
1. Fragmentation: Detritivores break raw organic detritus down into smaller processing units.
2. Leaching: Water-soluble nutrients filter downward into deep soil strata.
3. Catabolism: Fungal and bacterial enzymes degrade organic material into simpler compounds.
4. Humification: Rapid accumulation of a dark, amorphous, nutrient-rich substance called humus.
🟣 Section C: Structured Theoretical Evaluation
Q22. Give any three adaptations found in wind-pollinated plants.
Anemophilous Adaptations:
1. Pollen grains are lightweight, non-sticky, and dry to facilitate air transport.
2. Stamens are well-exposed to easily disperse pollen into passing wind currents.
3. Stigmas are large, feathery, and exposed to efficiently capture airborne pollen grains.
Q23. Describe the structure of the uterus wall and functions performed by any of its two layers.
Anatomical Architecture: The uterine wall is structurally composed of a thick three-layered tissue envelope:
Perimetrium: The external thin membranous outer layer protective jacket.
Myometrium: Thick middle smooth muscle layer. Exhibits strong contractions during delivery.
Endometrium: Inner glandular layer. Undergoes cyclic changes during the menstrual cycle.
Q24. What is a replication fork? How does it aid replication of long strands of DNA?
Replication Mechanics: Because separating an entire long genomic DNA molecule requires massive amounts of energy, helical unwinding proceeds within a localized, Y-shaped structure called a replication fork. This localized opening allows DNA polymerases to catalyze polymerization under optimal energy expenditure conditions.
Q25. What is polymorphism in DNA? Give any two applications of DNA polymorphism.
Genetic Profile: DNA polymorphism refers to inheritable genetic variations that occur in a human population at a frequency greater than 0.01.
Core Industrial Applications:
1. High-resolution forensic analysis via DNA Fingerprinting layouts.
2. Comprehensive mapping of human gene locations across evolutionary lineages.
Q26. Though baculoviruses are pathogens, they are used as biological control agents. Give three reasons why they are preferred.
Biocontrol Benefits:
1. They are narrow-spectrum, target-specific insecticides with zero non-target toxicity.
2. They leave no negative impacts on mammals, birds, fish, or beneficial insect populations.
3. Ideal for Integrated Pest Management (IPM) systems to conserve local biodiversity.
Q27. Mention a method that can detect a pathogen at very low concentrations even when symptoms are not visible. Which two diseases are detected by this method?
Diagnostic Tool: Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) amplification enables very early pathogen detection.
Clinical Targets: Routinely utilized for detecting HIV in suspected AIDS patients and screening for oncogenic mutations in early cancer diagnostics.
Q28. Distinguish between predator and prey. Mention any two significant roles that predators play in nature.
Ecological Definitions: A predator is an organism that catches, kills, and consumes another organism (the prey) to fulfill its energy requirements.
Ecological Roles:
1. Act as essential conduits for transferring fixed energy across different trophic levels.
2. Keep prey populations checked, which maintains species diversity by reducing inter-species prey competition.
🟣 Section D: Integrated Case-Based Inquiries
Q29. Case Study: Population Genetics & Evolutionary Equilibrium
"In a given population, the frequency of occurrence of alleles of a gene or a locus is supposed to remain fixed and even remain the same through generations. Hardy-Weinberg principle stated it using algebraic equations. Certain factors are known to affect Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium..."
Case Solutions:
(a) Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium: A principle stating that allele and genotype frequencies in a large, randomly mating population remain constant from generation to generation in the absence of evolutionary influences.

(b) Founder Effect: Genetic drift that occurs when a small group colonizes a new area. Their altered allele frequencies can lead to the formation of a distinct new species.

(c)(i) Gene Migration Impact: Regular emigration or immigration introduces or removes alleles, permanently changing gene frequencies in both populations.
OR
(c)(ii) Mutations & Evolution: Random mutations introduce brand-new alleles into a population. Advantageous mutations are selected for over generations, driving evolutionary change.
Q30. Case Study: Acquired Immunity Frameworks & Schedule Logistics
"Generally all of us have been vaccinated at various ages according to a schedule. Certain vaccines are taken only once and yet protection is provided for a long time or even for a lifetime in some cases."
Case Solutions:
(a) Immune Classification: This is known as an Acquired / Active Immune Response, which relies on the key property of Immunological Memory.

(b) Response Pathways:
Humoral Immune Response: Mediated by antibodies circulating in blood plasma, which are produced by B-lymphocytes.
Cell-Mediated Immune Response (CMI): Driven by T-lymphocytes to eliminate intracellular pathogens and foreign grafts.

(c)(i) Lymphocyte Function: B-cells produce specialized antibody proteins to neutralize target antigens, while T-cells help activate B-cells and directly destroy infected cells.
OR
(c)(ii) Anamnestic Response: A rapid, high-intensity immune response triggered upon re-exposure to the same pathogen, powered by existing memory cells.
🟣 Section E: Deep-Dive Comprehensive Long Form Inquiries
Q31 (a). Angiosperm Reproductive Mechanics & Embryonic Development
(i) Evolutionary Seed Advantages:
1. Seed formation is independent of water, relying instead on reliable pollination mechanisms.
2. Hard seed coats protect vulnerable embryos from environmental stress.
3. Contains stored food reserves to nourish developing seedlings until they are photosynthetically self-sufficient.

(ii) Tissue Differentiation Table:
Perisperm Profile
Pericarp Profile
The persistent, residual nutritive nucellus tissue layer found inside specific seeds (e.g., Black Pepper).
The protective wall of a fruit, which develops directly from the transformed ovary wall after fertilization.
(iii) Polyembryony: The occurrence of more than one embryo in a single seed (common in Citrus species).
OR (b) (i) Endocrine Control of Menstrual Cycle and Embryology
Endocrine Cascade:
Source: The anterior pituitary gland secretes key gonadotropins: Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) and Luteinizing Hormone (LH).
Ovarian Changes: FSH stimulates follicular growth and estrogen secretion during the follicular phase. A sharp LH surge around day 14 triggers ovulation, releasing the secondary oocyte. The ruptured follicle then transforms into the corpus luteum, which secretes progesterone.

(ii) Placental Hormones: Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG) and Human Placental Lactogen (hPL).

(iii) Stem Cell Niche: Located within the inner cell mass of the blastocyst. These cells are pluripotent, meaning they have the capacity to differentiate into any specialized tissue type in the human body.
Q32 (a). Describe five benefits of genetically modified organisms (GMOs).
Biotech Engineering Advantages:
1. Increases crop tolerance to abiotic stresses like cold, drought, salt, and heat.
2. Reduces reliance on chemical pesticides by creating pest-resistant crops (e.g., Bt Cotton).
3. Helps minimize post-harvest storage losses.
4. Enhances the efficiency of mineral usage by plants, preventing early exhaustion of soil fertility.
5. Improves nutritional value, such as Vitamin A-enriched Golden Rice.
OR (b) Architectural Maturation of Insulin and Immunological Disparity
Structural Overview: Human insulin consists of two short polypeptide chains: chain A and chain B, linked together by disulfide bridges.

Maturation Cascade: Insulin is initially synthesized as an inactive pro-hormone containing an extra segment called the C-peptide. During maturation, this C-peptide is proteolytically cleaved to yield the active, functional insulin molecule.

Animal Source Risks: Administering insulin extracted from animal sources (like slaughtered pigs or cattle) can trigger allergic reactions or foreign-body immune responses due to minor structural differences.
Q33 (a). Ecosystem Interaction Dynamics & Conservation Blueprints
(i) Mutualistic Co-evolution: A tight relationship where two species evolve in tandem, meaning changes in one drive adaptations in the other. For example, a Mediterranean orchid employs sexual deception to attract a specific wasp pollinator. If the female wasp's coloration shifts, the orchid must co-evolve matching structural changes to ensure continued pollination.

(ii) Endemism & Biodiversity Hotspots: Endemism describes species that are strictly confined to a specific geographic region and found nowhere else on Earth. Two major biodiversity hotspots in India are the Western Ghats and the Eastern Himalayas.
OR (b) (i) Quantitative Computational Population Matrix Model
Mathematical Evaluation:
The population density at a future time step is calculated using the following formula:
Nt+1 = Nt + [ (B + I) - (D + E) ]
Given values:
• Initial density (Nt) = 500
• Natality (B) = 100 | Immigration (I) = 300
• Mortality (D) = 50 | Emigration (E) = 250

Step-by-Step Calculation:
Input Additions = B + I = 100 + 300 = 400
Output Reductions = D + E = 50 + 250 = 300
Net Change = 400 - 300 = +100
Final Density Nt+1 = 500 + 100 = 600

Final Answer: The population density at time (t + 1) will be exactly 600 individuals.
(ii) Conservation Strategy Matrix:
In-situ Conservation (On-Site)
Ex-situ Conservation (Off-Site)
Protects threatened species within their natural habitats by safeguarding the entire ecosystem (e.g., National Parks, Biosphere Reserves).
Removes threatened organisms from vulnerable natural habitats to be cared for in specialized, human-managed environments (e.g., Botanical Gardens, Zoological Parks, Cryopreservation gene banks).
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