RAS Pre 2026 – All Questions with Answers

RAS Pre 2026 – Complete Question Paper with Answers

All 97 Questions • Options • Correct Answers

Question 1
Consider the following statements about States Reorganisation Act and choose the correct option –
(A) The States Reorganisation Act was passed by the Indian Parliament in November 1956.
(B) This legislation provided for a system comprising 14 States and 7 Union Territories.
(C) The Telangana region of the Hyderabad State was merged into Princely Maharashtra.
  • (1) Only (B) is true
  • (2) Only (A) is true
  • (3) (A) and (B) are true
  • (4) (A) and (C) are true
  • (5) Question not attempted
Note: Statement A is true. Statement B provided for 14 States and 6 Union Territories, not 7. Statement C merged Telangana into Andhra Pradesh, not Maharashtra.
Question 2
Which one among the following statements is NOT true regarding the Dravidian style of temple architecture?
  • (1) Pushkarinis (temple tanks) are a common feature of Dravidian temples.
  • (2) The Gopuram is one of the most distinctive features of Dravidian temples.
  • (3) Dravidian temples are characterized by a curvilinear shikhara over the sanctum.
  • (4) The vimana above the sanctums is generally pyramidal in shape.
  • (5) Question not attempted
Note: Curvilinear shikhara is a characteristic feature of the Nagara/North Indian style, not the Dravidian style.
Question 3
Identify the inconsistent match regarding the panoramas developed in Rajasthan –
Name of PanoramaLocation
(1) 1857 Freedom StruggleAuwa, Pali
(2) Mahabalidani PannadhayChittori Kheda, Chittorgarh
(3) Guru Gobind Singh JiNaraina, Jaipur
(4) Dhanna BhagatDhuan Kalan, Tonk
  • (1) 1857 Freedom Struggle – Auwa, Pali
  • (2) Mahabalidani Pannadhay – Chittori Kheda, Chittorgarh
  • (3) Guru Gobind Singh Ji – Naraina, Jaipur
  • (4) Dhanna Bhagat – Dhuan Kalan, Tonk
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 4
Consider the following awards –
(A) Padma Vibhushan
(B) Ramon Magsaysay
(C) Dr. B.C. Roy
(D) Padma Bhushan
Which of the above awards were received by Dr. P.K. Sethi, the father of the 'Jaipur Foot'?
  • (1) Only (B) and (C)
  • (2) Only (B), (C) and (D)
  • (3) Only (A), (C) and (D)
  • (4) Only (A), (B) and (C)
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 5
Consider the following question regarding ancient Rajasthan –
When the state collected its share from the cultivators in the form of money (currency), then the tax was known as
  • (1) Pranaya
  • (2) Hiranyaka
  • (3) Uparikara
  • (4) Shulka
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 6
In which of the following dance forms, traditionally no musical instrument is used?
  • (1) Walar
  • (2) Ger
  • (3) Gindad
  • (4) Dandiya
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 7
Which of the following ornaments are traditionally worn around the neck by the women of Rajasthan?
(A) Pot or Pote
(B) Chhada
(C) Timaniya
(D) Champakali
  • (1) (B) and (C)
  • (2) (A), (B) and (D)
  • (3) (A) and (B)
  • (4) (A), (C) and (D)
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 8
Arrange these Saints of Rajasthan in chronological order according to their birth year –
(A) Jambhoji
(B) Jasnathji
(C) Dadudayal
(D) Meera Bai
  • (1) (C)→(B)→(A)→(D)
  • (2) (B)→(A)→(C)→(D)
  • (3) (A)→(B)→(C)→(D)
  • (4) (A)→(B)→(D)→(C)
  • (5) Question not attempted
Note: Jambhoji: 1451 AD, Jasnathji: 1482 AD, Meera Bai: 1498 AD, Dadu Dayal: 1544 AD
Question 9
Arrange the following events related to the Indian National Movement in chronological order of their occurrence –
(A) Appointment of the Simon Commission for India
(B) Execution of Bhagat Singh, Rajguru and Sukhdev
(C) Martyrdom of Chandrashekhar Azad in police encounter
(D) Execution of Surya Sen (Masterda)
  • (1) (C)→(B)→(A)→(D)
  • (2) (B)→(A)→(C)→(D)
  • (3) (A)→(C)→(B)→(D)
  • (4) (A)→(C)→(D)→(B)
  • (5) Question not attempted
Note: Simon Comm.: Nov 1927; Azad: Feb 1931; Bhagat Singh, Rajguru, Sukhdev: Mar 1931; Surya Sen: Jan 1934
Question 10
With reference to the 16ᵗʰ-18ᵗʰ centuries, consider the following Statement (A) and Reason (R) –
Statement (A): There remained good stability in the availability of silver rupees in India.
Reason (R): With constantly increasing trade, a massive amount of silver came from Asia to pay for the goods exported from India.
  • (1) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
  • (2) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
  • (3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  • (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (5) Question not attempted
Note: Silver came primarily from Europe and the Americas, not Asia.
Question 11
Consider the following statements regarding Rajasthani Phad Painting –
(1) The Phad paintings are traditionally executed on handmade paper using watercolours.
(2) Phad paintings are traditionally prepared for the Bhopas, who narrate and sing the stories of the folk deities accompanied by the Ravan Hattha or Jantar.
(3) In Phad paintings, goddesses are depicted in red colour, while gods are painted in blue.
(4) The central deity in a Phad painting is depicted much larger in size than the other figures.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
  • (1) (1) and (3)
  • (2) Only (4)
  • (3) (2) and (4)
  • (4) Only (1)
  • (5) Question not attempted
Note: Phad paintings are made on cloth, not paper. Standard color symbolism also makes statement 3 incorrect.
Question 12
Consider the following statements and select the correct code –
Assertion (A): The Chamber of Princes (Narendra Mandal) was established in 1921 with the royal assent of the British Crown to provide a common platform to the rulers of the Princely States.
Reason (R): The Chamber of Princes was established in the context of the reforms introduced under the Government of India Act, 1919 and the growing nationalist political activities to organize and unite the rulers of the Princely States.
  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
  • (3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  • (4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 13
Read the following statements regarding Achalgarh Fort and choose the correct option –
(A) This fort was built by the Kings of the Parmar dynasty.
(B) Maharana Kumbha reconstructed and expanded this fort.
(C) There are water bodies in this fort namely Gol Jhalra, Bada Jhalra.
  • (1) Only (B) and (C) are correct
  • (2) Only (A) and (B) are correct
  • (3) (A), (B) and (C) all are correct
  • (4) Only (B) is correct
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 14
Arrange the following events in chronological (ascending) order –
(1) First Anglo-Maratha War
(2) Second Anglo-Mysore War
(3) Third Anglo-Mysore War
(4) Second Anglo-Maratha War
  • (1) (1)→(3)→(2)→(4)
  • (2) (2)→(3)→(1)→(4)
  • (3) (1)→(2)→(3)→(4)
  • (4) (2)→(1)→(3)→(4)
  • (5) Question not attempted
Note: 1st Anglo-Maratha: 1775–1782; 2nd Anglo-Mysore: 1780–1784; 3rd Anglo-Mysore: 1790–1792; 2nd Anglo-Maratha: 1803–1805
Question 15
Consider the following literary genre of Rajasthani literature –
"This is a metric verse (chhand) of Rajasthani poetry. In this, first a full couplet (doha) is recited, and then the last line of the couplet is repeated in the fifth line."
Which genre of Rajasthani literature does the above statement describe?
  • (1) Veli
  • (2) Jhulna
  • (3) Jhamal
  • (4) Rupak
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 16
Which among the following National Parks/Wildlife Sanctuaries of Rajasthan is largest in area?
  • (1) Phulwari ki Naal
  • (2) Desert National Park
  • (3) Kailadevi
  • (4) Darrah
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 17
According to Census 2011, how many districts of Rajasthan had urban population less than 10 percent of their total population?
  • (1) Five
  • (2) Two
  • (3) Six
  • (4) Three
  • (5) Question not attempted
Note: Dungarpur and Jalore
Question 18
Consider the following rivers of Rajasthan –
(A) Sipu
(B) Mantha
(C) Khandela
(D) Kantli
How many of the above are examples of inland drainage?
  • (1) Only two
  • (2) Only one
  • (3) All four
  • (4) Only three
  • (5) Question not attempted
Note: Mantha, Khandela, and Kantli belong to inland drainage; Sipu is a tributary of West Banas.
Question 19
Arrange the following physical features of Rajasthan in correct chronological order –
(A) Bap Boulders
(B) Aravalli System
(C) Deccan Trap
(D) Alluvial and Blown Sand
  • (1) (C)→(B)→(A)→(D)
  • (2) (B)→(A)→(D)→(C)
  • (3) (B)→(A)→(C)→(D)
  • (4) (A)→(B)→(C)→(D)
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 20
Out of the following districts of Rajasthan, the lowest variability of rainfall is recorded in –
  • (1) Bharatpur
  • (2) Sirohi
  • (3) Hanumangarh
  • (4) Jaisalmer
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 21
Which among the following facts is/are correct about Rajasthan Forestry and Biodiversity Development Project?
(A) This project is an initiative supported by the Agence Francaise de Developpement.
(B) The spanning of this project is from 2023-24 to 2029-30.
(C) This project is being implemented across 23 districts of Rajasthan.
  • (1) Only (A) and (C)
  • (2) Only (A)
  • (3) Only (B)
  • (4) (A), (B) and (C)
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 22
The 'Depsang Plains' are located in –
  • (1) North-Eastern India
  • (2) Southern India
  • (3) Central India
  • (4) Northern India
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 23
Which among the following is NOT matched correctly?
  • (1) Solar Panel Manufacturing Park – Kankani Industrial Area, Jodhpur
  • (2) Integrated Resource Recovery Park – Chittorgarh
  • (3) Handicraft and Furniture Park – Jodhpur
  • (4) Stone Park – Gundi-Fatehpur, Kota
  • (5) Question not attempted
Note: Integrated Resource Recovery Park is located at Tholai, Jaipur.
Question 24
Arrange the following mountains of Europe from North to South according to their location –
(A) Black Forest
(B) Kjølen
(C) Harz
(D) Dinaric Alps
  • (1) (C)→(D)→(A)→(B)
  • (2) (A)→(B)→(C)→(D)
  • (3) (B)→(A)→(D)→(C)
  • (4) (B)→(C)→(A)→(D)
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 25
Which among the following is not linked with National Waterway-5 of India?
  • (1) Geonkhali-Charbatia stretch of East Coast canal
  • (2) Talcher-Dhamra stretch of Brahmani river
  • (3) Charbatia-Dhamra stretch of Matai river
  • (4) Buckingham canal (Kakinada to Puducherry)
  • (5) Question not attempted
Note: Buckingham Canal forms part of National Waterway-4.
Question 26
Consider the following mining areas of Rajasthan –
(A) Dakan Kotra
(B) Sallopat
(C) Birmania
(D) Barodia
How many of the above are mining areas of Rock Phosphate?
  • (1) Only two
  • (2) Only three
  • (3) Only one
  • (4) All four
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 27
Among the following, which port acts as "the crossroads of the Pacific" for refuelling and servicing?
  • (1) Vancouver
  • (2) Hong Kong
  • (3) Manila
  • (4) Honolulu
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 28
To keep global warming to no more than 1.5°C above pre-industrial level, the Paris Agreement calls for reaching net-zero by –
  • (1) 2050
  • (2) 2035
  • (3) 2045
  • (4) 2030
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 29
Consider the following statements regarding the Dholpur Lift Project –
(A) It is a complete lift irrigation cum drinking water project.
(B) It aims to provide irrigation in about 39,980 hectares of culturable command area in Dholpur district.
(C) It includes the mandatory installation of 10 MW solar power generation plant.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • (1) Only (A)
  • (2) Only (A) and (B)
  • (3) Only (B) and (C)
  • (4) (A), (B) and (C)
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 30
Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) –
Assertion (A): Pulse yields per hectare across various states in India have consistently remained at a lower level.
Reason (R): Persistent technological, structural and climatic constraints put heavy impact on productivity of pulse cultivation.
  • (1) (A) is false but (R) is true
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
  • (4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 31
Consider the following statements regarding provisions of the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003 –
(I) The proceedings of the Commission shall be conducted at its headquarters.
(II) If for any reason the Central Vigilance Commissioner is unable to attend any meeting of the Commission, then any one Vigilance Commissioner designated by the President of India shall preside at the meeting.
  • (1) Neither (I) nor (II) is correct
  • (2) Only (I) is correct
  • (3) Both (I) and (II) are correct
  • (4) Only (II) is correct
  • (5) Question not attempted
Note: As per Section 5(2) of CVC Act 2003, the CVC himself or in his absence the senior-most Vigilance Commissioner present presides over meetings.
Question 32
Arrange the following states chronologically according to them becoming the State and choose the correct answer with the help of the code given below –
(I) Manipur
(II) Mizoram
(III) Sikkim
(IV) Nagaland
  • (1) (I)→(II)→(III)→(IV)
  • (2) (II)→(I)→(III)→(IV)
  • (3) (IV)→(I)→(III)→(II)
  • (4) (IV)→(III)→(I)→(II)
  • (5) Question not attempted
Note: Nagaland: 1963; Manipur: 1972; Sikkim: 1975; Mizoram: 1987
Question 33
Identify the incorrect statement with reference to the Rajasthan State Information Commission –
  • (1) "Aavdani Janebhya" is the motto of the Rajasthan State Information Commission.
  • (2) Shri Suresh Chaudhary was appointed as the third Chief Information Commissioner of Rajasthan.
  • (3) The Rajasthan Information Commission (Management) Regulations, 2007 were framed for the management of judicial functions of the Rajasthan State Information Commission.
  • (4) Its decisions shall be final and binding under Section 19(9) of the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005.
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 34
Consider the following statements regarding the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 –
(I) An offence punishable under this Act is cognizable and non-bailable.
(II) Under this Act punishment for male adult who contracts a child marriage is rigorous imprisonment which may extend to two years or with fine which may extend to four lakh rupees or with both.
  • (1) Neither (I) nor (II) is correct
  • (2) Only (II) is correct
  • (3) Only (I) is correct
  • (4) Both (I) and (II) are correct
  • (5) Question not attempted
Note: Statement II is incorrect as fine amount specified under Section 9 is up to 1 lakh rupees, not 4 lakh rupees.
Question 35
Consider the following statements regarding the Schemes/Policies for women's empowerment in Rajasthan –
(I) Both government and private sonography centres have been included in the MAA Voucher Scheme.
(II) The Rajasthan Government has constituted the Kalika Patrolling Unit to enhance the safety of girls and women.
  • (1) Both (I) and (II) are correct
  • (2) Only (I) is correct
  • (3) Neither (I) nor (II) is correct
  • (4) Only (II) is correct
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 36
In which of the following year was the Annual Financial Statement (State Budget) of Rajasthan laid before the Lok Sabha rather than the Rajasthan Legislative Assembly consequent to the proclamation of President's Rule in the State?
  • (1) 1993
  • (2) 1977
  • (3) 1967
  • (4) 1980
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 37
Which of the following principles are not mentioned in the Part-IV of the Constitution of India?
(I) The State shall endeavour to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups.
(II) The State shall endeavour to provide for free and compulsory education for all children until they complete the age of fourteen years.
(III) The State shall promote with special care the political and economic interests of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
  • (1) Only (II) and (III)
  • (2) Only (I) and (III)
  • (3) (I), (II) and (III)
  • (4) Only (I) and (II)
  • (5) Question not attempted
Note: Statement I is Article 350A in Part XVII. Article 46 mentions "educational and economic interests", not political.
Question 38
Who among the following members of the Constituent Assembly of India, during the discussion on the draft Constitution, proposed an amendment that the President should be elected by all adult citizens by secret ballot?
  • (1) K.M. Munshi
  • (2) K.T. Shah
  • (3) T.T. Krishnamachari
  • (4) Jaipal Singh
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 39
In which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India related to the Supreme Court of India, the writ of Mandamus is mentioned?
  • (1) 137
  • (2) 139
  • (3) 138
  • (4) 140
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 40
Which of the following are the legal rights of a consumer under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 of India?
(I) The Right to Basic Needs
(II) The Right to be Consulted
(III) The Right to be Protected
(IV) The Right to be Informed
  • (1) Only (I), (II) and (III)
  • (2) Only (I) and (II)
  • (3) Only (II), (III) and (IV)
  • (4) Only (III) and (IV)
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 41
Identify the incorrect statements regarding the Government of India Act, 1919 –
(I) The Governor-General's Executive Council included three Indian members out of a total of eight.
(II) The bicameral legislature was introduced at the Centre and Provincial level.
(III) Members of the provincial legislature were exclusively empowered to reject the budget.
  • (1) Only (I) and (II)
  • (2) (I), (II) and (III)
  • (3) Only (II) and (III)
  • (4) Only (I) and (III)
  • (5) Question not attempted
Note: Bicameralism was introduced at the Centre, not at provincial level.
Question 42
In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court of India held that the Right to Livelihood is included in the Right to Life under Article 21?
  • (1) Hussainara Khatoon V. Home Secretary, State of Bihar, 1979
  • (2) S.P. Gupta V. Union of India, 1981
  • (3) M.C. Mehta V. Union of India, 1987
  • (4) Olga Tellis V. Bombay Municipal Corporation, 1985
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 43
Under the provisions of which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, the legislature of a State may by law provide for making grant-in-aid to the Municipalities from the Consolidated Fund of the State?
  • (1) 243X(a)
  • (2) 243X(b)
  • (3) 243X(c)
  • (4) 243X(d)
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 44
Under the provisions of which of the following Sections of the Rajasthan Land Revenue Act, 1956, the State Government shall appoint a Collector in each district who shall also be the Land Records Officer for the district?
  • (1) 22
  • (2) 21
  • (3) 19
  • (4) 20
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 45
Consider the following statements regarding the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India –
(i) He takes an oath or affirmation according to the form set out for the purpose in the Third Schedule.
(ii) The reports relating to the accounts of the Union are laid before each House of the Parliament by the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.
(iii) He is only removed from office in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
  • (1) (i), (ii) and (iii)
  • (2) Only (i) and (iii)
  • (3) Only (i)
  • (4) Only (ii) and (iii)
  • (5) Question not attempted
Note: Reports are submitted to the President, who then causes them to be laid before Parliament.
Question 46
Consider the following statements –
(I) Gross Domestic Product is the sum of Gross Value Added of all the firms in the economy in a year.
(II) Expenditure method of measuring National Income shows the demand side of the products.
  • (1) Neither (I) nor (II) is correct
  • (2) Only (II) is correct
  • (3) Only (I) is correct
  • (4) Both (I) and (II) are correct
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 47
Which of the following statements is/are true?
(a) The Rajasthan Small Industries Corporation Limited markets handicraft items of state artisans through 'RAJASTHALI' outlets in Jaipur, Udaipur, Delhi and Kolkata.
(b) The 44th Indian International Trade Fair 2025 was held in Pragati Maidan, New Delhi. Rajasthan Pavilion was awarded a silver medal for its transcendent participation in this year's theme "Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat".
  • (1) Both (a) and (b) are true
  • (2) Neither (a) nor (b) is true
  • (3) Only (a) is true
  • (4) Only (b) is true
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 48
As per the Economic Survey 2025-26, following statements regarding India's agricultural production have been given –
(i) Estimated food grain production in the 2024-25 financial year has exceeded horticultural production.
(ii) Oilseed production has increased by nearly 55 percent between 2014-15 and 2024-25.
(iii) India ranked first globally in the production of vegetables, fruits and potatoes in 2023-24.
  • (1) Only (i) and (ii)
  • (2) Only (i) and (iii)
  • (3) Only (ii) and (iii)
  • (4) Only (ii)
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 49
Which sequences correctly explain the inflation control mechanism?
(I) Increase in Reverse Repo Rate → decrease in money supply → decrease in inflation
(II) Increase in CRR → increase in money multiplier → decrease in inflation
(III) Increase in Repo Rate → decrease in investment → decrease in inflation
  • (1) Only (I) and (II)
  • (2) Only (II) and (III)
  • (3) (I), (II) and (III) all
  • (4) Only (I) and (III)
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 50
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(I) National Food Security Act, 2013 ensures higher food grain production.
(II) Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS) serves as the primary delivery mechanism for providing subsidised food grains.
(III) TPDS is the sole responsibility of the State Governments or Union Territory Administrations.
  • (1) Only (II)
  • (2) Only (II) and (III)
  • (3) Only (I) and (III)
  • (4) Only (I) and (II)
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 51
The following statements are given about India's foreign trade according to the Economic Survey 2025-26 –
(a) India's total exports stood at USD 825.3 billion in FY 2025. This performance was primarily driven by growth of services exports.
(b) During the period from FY 2020 to FY 2025, the share of agricultural exports in the country's total merchandise exports ranges between 11 percent and 14 percent.
(c) India's share in global agricultural exports rose from 1.1 percent in 2000 to 3.4 percent in 2024.
  • (1) Only (b) and (c) are correct
  • (2) Only (a) and (c) are correct
  • (3) Only (a) and (b) are correct
  • (4) (a), (b) and (c) all are correct
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 52
Read the following statements and select the correct answer using the code given below –
(a) Expenditure on pension payment is a part of revenue expenditure of Government.
(b) Expenditure on subsidy is a part of capital expenditure of Government.
  • (1) Only (a) is correct
  • (2) Only (b) is correct
  • (3) Both (a) and (b) are correct
  • (4) Neither (a) nor (b) is correct
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 53
Under the 'Panch Gaurav' Programme launched by the Government of Rajasthan in the year 2025-26, five key elements for each district have been identified. Select the correct combination from the list given below –
  • (1) District – Dausa | Crop – Fennel | Botanical Species – Neem | Product – Stone products | Tourist Destination – Mehandipur Balaji Temple | Sport – Hockey
  • (2) District – Jaisalmer | Crop – Dates | Botanical Species – Jaal | Product – Yellow stone products | Tourist Destination – Jaisalmer Fort | Sport – Gymnastics
  • (3) District – Bharatpur | Crop – Mustard | Botanical Species – Kadamba | Product – Agriculture-based products | Tourist Destination – Keoladeo National Park | Sport – Kabaddi
  • (4) District – Balotra | Crop – Pomegranate | Botanical Species – Khejri | Product – Textile products | Tourist Destination – Nakoda Jain Temple | Sport – Basketball
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 54
Consider the following statements related to Mukhyamantri Amrit Aahar Scheme –
(I) This scheme has been implemented across all Anganwadi Centres from 14th December 2024.
(II) This scheme has been implemented to address malnutrition among children aged 3-6 years.
(III) Under this scheme, standard-grade skimmed milk powder is supplied by the Rajasthan Co-operative Dairy Federation, providing 100 ml of sweet warm milk per child per day.
  • (1) (I), (II) and (III) all are correct
  • (2) Only (I) and (III) are correct
  • (3) Only (II) and (III) are correct
  • (4) Only (I) and (II) are correct
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 55
As per the Economic Review 2025-26, statements regarding the Mukhyamantri Vishesh Yogyajan Samman Pension Yojana of Rajasthan are given below –
(A) This scheme provides a monthly pension of ₹1,500 to specially-abled persons from birth to all age groups.
(B) This scheme provides a monthly pension of ₹2,500 to leprosy-cured individuals.
(C) This scheme provides a monthly pension of ₹2,000 to silicosis victims certified by a designated Medical Board.
  • (1) Only (A) and (B) are correct
  • (2) (A), (B) and (C) all are correct
  • (3) Only (A) and (C) are correct
  • (4) Only (B) is correct
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 56
According to the Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) Report 2023-24, which state has made the highest contribution to total employment in India's manufacturing sector?
  • (1) Tamil Nadu
  • (2) Gujarat
  • (3) Maharashtra
  • (4) Andhra Pradesh
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 57
Consider the following statements regarding Mukhyamantri Yuva Swarozgar Yojana of Rajasthan –
(a) Under this scheme, the Rajasthan Government is offering interest-free loans to eligible youth to help them establish or expand entrepreneurial projects.
(b) Permanent residents of Rajasthan between 18 and 35 years of age are eligible to apply for financial assistance under this scheme.
(c) It is being implemented by the Industries and Commerce Department of Government of Rajasthan.
  • (1) (b) and (c) are correct
  • (2) (a), (b) and (c) all are correct
  • (3) (a) and (c) are correct
  • (4) (a) and (b) are correct
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 58
As per the Economic Survey 2025-26, the following statements are given about India's service sector –
(a) India is the world's seventh largest exporter of services.
(b) India's share in global services trade has risen from 2 percent in 2005 to 4.3 percent in 2024.
(c) Service sector is the second-highest recipient of Foreign Direct Investment inflows in the country.
(d) According to the World Bank, India's services sector's share in the GDP in 2024 stood at approximately 49.9 percent.
  • (1) Only (a) and (d) are correct
  • (2) Only (b) and (c) are correct
  • (3) Only (a), (b) and (d) are correct
  • (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are correct
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 59
The following statements have been given regarding PM SVANidhi Scheme –
(a) This scheme was started in the year 2021.
(b) This scheme provides collateral-free working capital loans to street vendors and micro-entrepreneurs.
(c) As a result of this scheme, the use of digital payments increased from 45 percent in 2023 to 73 percent in 2025 as per the Economic Survey 2025-26.
(d) The estimated NPA rate under this scheme is less than 5 percent.
  • (1) Only (a), (c) and (d) are correct
  • (2) Only (b) is correct
  • (3) Only (a) and (b) are correct
  • (4) Only (a), (b) and (d) are correct
  • (5) Question not attempted
Note: Statement (a) is incorrect because PM SVANidhi was launched on June 1, 2020.
Question 60
Consider the following statements with regard to poverty measurement –
(A) In June 2025, the World Bank raised the poverty line from US$2.15 to US$3.00 a day, adjusted for the purchasing power of money to 2021 prices.
(B) With the revised International Poverty Line, the poverty rates for India in 2022-23 are 5.3 percent for extreme poverty and 23.9 percent for lower-middle-income poverty.
  • (1) Only (A) is correct
  • (2) Only (B) is correct
  • (3) (A) and (B) both are correct
  • (4) Neither (A) nor (B) is correct
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 61
A breeding centre for the conservation of which species has been established at Arwar of Ajmer district?
  • (1) Lesser Florican (Kharmor)
  • (2) Black Drongo (Kotwal)
  • (3) Great Indian Bustard (Godawan)
  • (4) Demoiselle Crane (Kurja)
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 62
The Rajasthan Budget 2026-27 proposes to construct space galleries at –
  • (1) State Remote Sensing Application Centre (SRSAC) Jodhpur and Science Park Ajmer
  • (2) State Remote Sensing Application Centre (SRSAC) Jaipur and Science Park Ajmer
  • (3) State Remote Sensing Application Centre (SRSAC) Jaipur and Science Park Jhalawar
  • (4) State Remote Sensing Application Centre (SRSAC) Jodhpur and Science Park Jaipur
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 63
Read the statements and choose the correct option –
Statement (A): The human tongue is made up of skeletal muscle.
Statement (B): The human teeth are made up of bones.
  • (1) Statements (A) and (B) are false
  • (2) Statements (A) and (B) are true
  • (3) Statement (A) is false but statement (B) is true
  • (4) Statement (A) is true but statement (B) is false
  • (5) Question not attempted
Note: Teeth are made of enamel, dentin, and pulp—not bone.
Question 64
Consider the following statements regarding the electronic components –
(A) Resistor, capacitor and inductor are the passive components of an electrical circuit.
(B) Diodes and transistors are the active electronic components.
(C) Active components produce electrical energy in the form of voltage or current without any external power source.
  • (1) Only (A) is true
  • (2) Only (B) and (C) are true
  • (3) Only (A) and (C) are true
  • (4) Only (A) and (B) are true
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 65
According to a recent finding of a research team of the Institute of Advanced Study in Science and Technology (IASST), Guwahati, which of the following two-dimensional (2D) nanomaterial can be used in very small amount (Just 0.1 wt%) as a high performance lubricant additive in castor oil for dramatic improvement in its lubrication performance?
  • (1) Bromo-Graphite
  • (2) Borophene
  • (3) Graphene
  • (4) Graphenoil
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 66
Consider the following statements regarding the synthetic detergents and choose the correct option –
Statement (A): Synthetic detergents are cleansing agents which have all the properties of soaps, but which actually do not contain any soap.
Statement (B): Anionic detergents are mostly used for household works. Anionic detergents are also used in toothpastes.
Statement (C): Cationic detergents have germicidal properties.
  • (1) Only statements (B) and (C) are correct
  • (2) All the three statements (A), (B) and (C) are correct
  • (3) Only statements (A) and (B) are correct
  • (4) Only statements (A) and (C) are correct
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 67
Mango, Apricot and Papaya are major sources of –
  • (1) Vitamin A
  • (2) Vitamin D
  • (3) Vitamin B-12
  • (4) Vitamin E
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 68
How many Ramsar-accredited Wetland Cities are there in India (as of April 2026)?
  • (1) Two (Udaipur and Indore)
  • (2) Three (Udaipur, Varanasi and Kota)
  • (3) One (Bharatpur)
  • (4) Four (Sambhar, Bharatpur, Banswara and Bhopal)
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 69
Which one of the following statements is NOT true regarding LVM3-M6/BlueBird Block-2 Mission?
  • (1) This mission was undertaken as part of the commercial agreement signed between National Science India Limited and US-based ASE Mobile.
  • (2) BlueBird Block-2 Mission is part of a global LEO constellation to provide direct-to-mobile connectivity through satellite.
  • (3) LVM3-M6 Mission placed the heaviest satellite ever launched from Indian soil into its designated orbit (As on launch date).
  • (4) LVM3-M6 was the sixth operational flight of LVM3. In its earlier missions, LVM3 successfully launched Chandrayaan-2, Chandrayaan-3 and two OneWeb missions carrying 72 satellites.
  • (5) Question not attempted
Note: It is NewSpace India Limited (NSIL) and AST SpaceMobile.
Question 70
Match Column-I and Column-II in context of DRDO laboratories/establishments and their locations and select the correct answer using the code given below –
Column-I (Name of Laboratories/Establishments)Column-II (Location)
(A) Advanced Centre for Energetic Materials (ACEM)(i) Kanpur
(B) Centre for Artificial Intelligence and Robotics (CAIR)(ii) Nashik
(C) Defence Materials and Stores Research and Development Establishment (DMSRDE)(iii) Bengaluru
(D) DRDO Young Scientists' Laboratory-Quantum Technologies (DYSL-QT)(iv) Pune
  • (1) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)
  • (2) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)
  • (3) (A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)
  • (4) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv)
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 71
Match Column-I and Column-II in the context of Districts of Rajasthan and Identified Botanical Species in Panch Gaurav and select the correct answer using the code given below –
Column-I (District of Rajasthan)Column-II (Identified Botanical Species)
(A) Ajmer(i) Rohida
(B) Barmer(ii) Neem
(C) Baran(iii) Chironji
(D) Chittorgarh(iv) Bilva Patra
  • (1) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii)
  • (2) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)
  • (3) (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)
  • (4) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 72
Consider the following statements regarding the public mobile applications developed by the Department of Space/ISRO and choose the correct option –
Statement (A): Universal Data Collection App is an Android application which enables a user to collect data by defining his own attributes/fields. This data is stored on VEDAS servers.
Statement (B): Nabhmitra App is an operational SatCom network developed for emergency messaging by fishermen for search and rescue operation on automatic activation and it is one-way communication app.
  • (1) Statement (A) is true but statement (B) is false
  • (2) Statement (B) is true but statement (A) is false
  • (3) Both the statements (A) and (B) are false
  • (4) Both the statements (A) and (B) are true
  • (5) Question not attempted
Note: Nabhmitra provides two-way messaging capability.
Question 73
Multilayer Perceptron (MLP) is a type of –
  • (1) Storage Area Network
  • (2) Defence Network
  • (3) Telecommunication Network
  • (4) Neural Network
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 74
In the Harit-SANKALP platform under National CAMPA, the term SANKALP stands for –
  • (1) Sustainable Afforestation and Nursery Knowledge Learning Platform
  • (2) System for Afforestation, Nursery Knowledge & Linkage Platform
  • (3) Smart Afforestation Network for Knowledge, Logistics & Plantation
  • (4) System for Afforestation, Natural Knowledge & Landscape Planning
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 75
Two syringes of different cross-sections (without needles) filled with water are connected with a tightly fitted rubber tube filled with water. Diameters of the smaller piston and larger piston are 1.0 cm and 3.0 cm respectively. The force exerted on the larger piston when a force of 10 N is applied to the smaller piston will be (Water is considered to be perfectly incompressible) –
  • (1) 1.1 N
  • (2) 10 N
  • (3) 90 N
  • (4) 30 N
  • (5) Question not attempted
Note: F₂ = F₁ × (d₂/d₁)² = 10 × (3/1)² = 90 N
Question 76
From the given alternatives, the next term of the following series is –
  • (1) 105
  • (2) 98
  • (3) 82
  • (4) 90
  • (5) Question not attempted
Note: Differences between consecutive terms are 0, 3, 8, 15, 24, which follow (n² − 1). Next difference is 6² − 1 = 35; 55 + 35 = 90.
Question 77
Study the following information carefully –
Each of four players A, B, C and D is holding 4 playing cards. Each of them has an Ace, a King, a Queen and a Jack. All of them have all the suits (spades, hearts, clubs and diamonds).
(I) A has King of clubs and Jack of hearts.
(II) B has Queen of hearts and Ace of clubs.
(III) C has Jack of diamonds.
(IV) D has King of hearts.
As per the above information, who has Queen of clubs?
  • (1) C
  • (2) D
  • (3) B
  • (4) A
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 78
Two pie charts show the number of balls played by five cricket players A, B, C, D and E of a team in two cricket matches (I) and (II). The total number of balls played in each match is 120.
• Match (I): A = 20%, B = 15%, C = 25%, D = 10%, E = 30%
• Match (II): A = 123°, B = 51°, C = 60°, D = 54°, E = 72°
The players who play the maximum and minimum number of balls in both the matches together are respectively –
  • (1) E, D
  • (2) A, B
  • (3) A, D
  • (4) E, B
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 79
This question consists of a statement and is followed by two arguments (I) and (II). Consider both the arguments and decide which of the arguments is/are strong?
Statement: Should all adults have a legal obligation to care for their family members if they become incapacitated?
Argument (I): Yes, this is the only way through which incapacitated family members will get some relief.
Argument (II): No, it is not possible to resolve such cases only through legal means.
  • (1) Only argument (I) is strong
  • (2) Both arguments (I) and (II) are strong
  • (3) Neither argument (I) nor argument (II) is strong
  • (4) Only argument (II) is strong
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 80
In the question given below, two statements are followed by two conclusions (I) and (II). You have to assume the given statements to be true, even if they seem to be different from commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and decide which of the given conclusions logically follow/s from the two given statements, irrespective of commonly known facts.
Statement (I): All houses are books.
Statement (II): All books are boats.
Conclusion (I): All houses are boats.
Conclusion (II): All boats are books.
  • (1) Neither conclusion (I) nor conclusion (II) follows
  • (2) Only conclusion (II) follows
  • (3) Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
  • (4) Only conclusion (I) follows
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 81
A person invested ₹25,000 in two fixed deposit schemes 'P' and 'Q', on which he gets compound interest at 10% and 20% per annum respectively. If the total amount of interest accrued in 2 years through both fixed deposit schemes is ₹7,550, then the difference of invested amount in both the schemes is –
  • (1) ₹6,000
  • (2) ₹4,000
  • (3) ₹5,000
  • (4) ₹7,000
  • (5) Question not attempted
Note: Principal in Scheme P = ₹15,000, Principal in Scheme Q = ₹10,000. Difference = ₹5,000.
Question 82
₹9,520 is divided among three teams A, B and C. Team A has 6 members, B has 5 members and C has 8 members such that the share of each member of team A, B and C is in the ratio 7:6:9 respectively. The share of each member of team C is –
  • (1) ₹565
  • (2) ₹615
  • (3) ₹590
  • (4) ₹595
  • (5) Question not attempted
Note: Ratio of total money = (6×7):(5×6):(8×9) = 42:30:72 = 7:5:12. Total parts = 24. Team C total = ₹9520 × 12/24 = ₹4760. Share of each member in Team C = 4760 / 8 = ₹595.
Question 83
(8⁵ + 2¹³) is divisible by which one of the given alternatives?
  • (1) 15
  • (2) 10
  • (3) 12
  • (4) 3
  • (5) Question not attempted
Note: 8⁵ + 2¹³ = 2¹⁵ + 2¹³ = 2¹³(2² + 1) = 2¹³ × 5 = 2¹² × 10, which is divisible by 10.
Question 84
In a family, A is father of C but C is not his son. E is daughter of C. B is brother of C. D and A are married to each other. H is daughter of B and sister of G. G is the son of F, then the total number of females in this family is –
  • (1) 6
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 5
  • (5) Question not attempted
Note: Females are D, C, E, F, H.
Question 85
In a certain code language, if 'DATE' is written as 'VXDR' and 'COME' is written as 'WJKR', then in the same code language 'THIS' will be written as –
  • (1) FDQD
  • (2) DOXQ
  • (3) FQOD
  • (4) FOOD
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 86
Consider the following statements regarding 'CS-68', developed by scientists at the Agricultural Research Station, Fatehpur-Shekhawati, Rajasthan –
(i) It is a new variety of Indian maize.
(ii) It is developed in collaboration with the Indian Council of Agricultural Research-Central Soil Salinity Research Institute, Karnal.
(iii) This variety is recommended for regions across the country with saline-alkaline soils.
  • (1) Only (i)
  • (2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
  • (3) Only (i) and (ii)
  • (4) Only (ii) and (iii)
  • (5) Question not attempted
Note: CS-68 is a variety of mustard/wheat/crop, not maize.
Question 87
With reference to the FIFA World Cup 2026, which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
Tournament AwardPlayer
(1) Golden BallRodri
(2) Golden BootKylian Mbappé
(3) Golden GloveEmiliano Martínez
(4) Best Young PlayerPau Cubarsí
  • (1) Golden Ball – Rodri
  • (2) Golden Boot – Kylian Mbappé
  • (3) Golden Glove – Emiliano Martínez
  • (4) Best Young Player – Pau Cubarsí
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 88
Who among the following players of Rajasthan was the Captain of Indian team at the IKF Under-19 Asia Korfball-4 Championship held in Bangkok, Thailand, from July 26 to 31, 2026?
  • (1) Komal Shekhawat
  • (2) Kshitija Sharma
  • (3) Prerna Shekhawat
  • (4) Komal Sharma
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 89
Who among the following players has won the gold medal in the 25 meter Rapid Fire Pistol Men Junior category at the ISSF Junior World Championship (Rifle/Pistol/Shotgun) held in Germany in June 2026?
  • (1) Raj Chandra
  • (2) Sameer
  • (3) Rohit Kanyan
  • (4) Pritam Kendre
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 90
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the 22nd Commonwealth Table Tennis Championship 2026?
(A) This tournament was held at the Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium in Delhi from 31 July 2026 to 4 August 2026.
(B) The Delhi Government and the Table Tennis Federation of India jointly organised this championship.
(C) The official mascot of the championship was 'Mayur'.
  • (1) (A), (B) and (C)
  • (2) Only (B) and (C)
  • (3) Only (A) and (B)
  • (4) Only (B)
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 91
Which one of the following statements is NOT correct regarding the Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) that was recently signed between the School Education Department of Rajasthan and the Piramal Foundation?
  • (1) This MoU was signed on 26 July 2026.
  • (2) This initiative will help promote girls' education and make scholarship schemes more effective, transparent and accessible.
  • (3) Under the MoU, the Piramal Foundation will function as a technical support unit.
  • (4) It aims to introduce significant improvements such as integrating new technologies and making the education system future-oriented.
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 92
Which one of the following statements is NOT correct regarding 'Operation Southern Readiness 26-2'?
  • (1) It was a four-day multinational maritime security training engagement.
  • (2) This exercise was the second edition of 'Operation Southern Readiness' held in India.
  • (3) It was hosted by the Southern Naval Command at Kochi in July 2026.
  • (4) This engagement was conducted under the aegis of the Indian Navy-led 'Combined Task Force 154' in partnership with 'Combined Maritime Forces' (CMF).
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 93
In July 2026, the NATO Summit Defence Industry Forum took place at which of the following places?
  • (1) Rome
  • (2) Ankara
  • (3) Copenhagen
  • (4) Brussels
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 94
Consider the following statements about Neelima Arora related to Rajasthan –
(i) In June 2026, she has become the first woman in the world with thalassemia minor to successfully summit the Mount Everest.
(ii) In 2025, she became the first Indian woman over the age of 40 to successfully summit Ama Dablam (Nepal).
  • (1) Both (i) and (ii)
  • (2) Only (i)
  • (3) Only (ii)
  • (4) Neither (i) nor (ii)
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 95
Consider the following statements regarding the book "RSS@100: A Century of Service, Unity & Sacrifice" –
(I) This book was released by C.P. Radhakrishnan, the Vice-President of India, on 17th July 2026.
(II) This book is authored by Shyam Jaju and Anupam Trivedi.
  • (1) Only (II)
  • (2) Only (I)
  • (3) Both (I) and (II)
  • (4) Neither (I) nor (II)
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 96
Consider the following statements regarding Rajasthan's performance in the NITI Aayog's 'Investment Friendliness Index 2026' –
(i) Rajasthan was placed in the front-runners' category.
(ii) Among large states, Rajasthan ranked 2nd in regulatory ease.
(iii) Among large states, Rajasthan secured 4th place in Government policy and 5th place in the resources category.
  • (1) Only (ii) and (iii)
  • (2) Only (i) and (ii)
  • (3) Only (i)
  • (4) All three (i), (ii) and (iii)
  • (5) Question not attempted
Question 97
Consider the following statements regarding 'AAROH' report released by Ministry of Coal, Government of India, in July 2026 –
(I) This is India's first report on scientific mine closure and repurposing practices.
(II) This report documents the transformative journey of 85 scientifically closed coal mines.
  • (1) Only (II) is correct
  • (2) Neither (I) nor (II) is correct
  • (3) Only (I) is correct
  • (4) Both (I) and (II) are correct
  • (5) Question not attempted