PRSC 2nd Grade ....Gk paper.pdf with Answer 07 September 2025

1. In which of the following fort the buildings named Suraj Prakash, Khushal Prakash, Laxmi Prakash and Basant Prakash are located?

• (1) Junagarh
• (2) Mehrangarh
• (3) Balakila
• (4) Nahargarh

Correct Answer: (2) Mehrangarh

2. Painter Sahbadi was associated with which painting style of Rajasthan?

• (1) Jaipur
• (2) Mewar
• (3) Marwar
• (4) Bundi

Correct Answer: (2) Mewar

3. At which place the fair of Dadhimatee Mata is held?

• (1) Dhulev
• (2) Goth Manglod
• (3) Parbatsar
• (4) Shahpura

Correct Answer: (2) Goth Manglod

4. Which custom is celebrated on tenth day of the birth of a male child?

• (1) Dashotan
• (2) Jamna
• (3) Jadula
• (4) Dhoondh

Correct Answer: (1) Dashotan

5. Which one of the following saints was the founder of 'Rewasa Peeth' of Ramanandi sect in Rajasthan?

• (1) Agradas
• (2) Ramanand
• (3) Ramanuj
• (4) Swami Krishnadas

Correct Answer: (1) Agradas

6. Who was the author of text 'Rajvilas'?

• (1) Keshavdas
• (2) Tejkavi
• (3) Mankavi
• (4) Veerbhan

Correct Answer: (3) Mankavi

7. Who determines the remuneration of the Advocate General of a State in India?

• (1) President of India
• (2) Governor of the State
• (3) State Legislature
• (4) Chief Justice of India

Correct Answer: (2) Governor of the State

8. Through which Constitutional Amendment, it was added in the Constitution that a person can be appointed Governor of two or more states?

• (1) Fourth Amendment, 1955
• (2) Seventh Amendment, 1956
• (3) Twelfth Amendment, 1962
• (4) Fifteenth Amendment, 1963

Correct Answer: (2) Seventh Amendment, 1956

9. Which of the following folk songs are sung on the occasion of marriage?
(i) Jla, (ii) Parnet, (iii) Gorband, (iv) Seethne

• (1) (i), (ii)
• (2) (i), (iv)
• (3) (i), (iv)
• (4) (i), (ii), (iv)

Correct Answer: (3) (i), (ii), (iv)

10. Consider the following statements regarding the salaries and allowances of the Ministers of the Government of Rajasthan:
(i) The salaries and allowances of the Ministers of the Government of Rajasthan shall be such as the Parliament of India may from time to time by law determine.
(ii) Before November 1, 1956 the salaries and allowances of the Ministers of the Government of Rajasthan were as specified in the second schedule of the Constitution of India.

• (1) Both (i) and (ii) are true.
• (2) Both (i) and (ii) are false.
• (3) (i) is true and (ii) is false.
• (4) (i) is false and (ii) is true.

Correct Answer: (2) Both (i) and (ii) are false.

11. Consider the following statements:
(i) He served as the Chief Minister of Rajasthan.
(ii) He later became the Speaker of the Rajasthan Legislative Assembly.
(iii) He also held the position of chairman of the Rajasthan State Finance Commission.
These statements refer to which of the following prominent leaders of Rajasthan?

• (1) Jagannath Pahadia
• (2) Hira Lal Devpura
• (3) Haridev Joshi
• (4) Mohanlal Sukhadia

Correct Answer: (2) Hira Lal Devpura

12. Which one of the following statements is Correct regarding the appointment and term of office of members of the Rajasthan Public Service Commission?

• (1) The Chairman and other members of the Rajasthan Public Service Commission are appointed by the Governor of Rajasthan.
• (2) The Chairman is appointed by the President of India and other members of the Commission are appointed by the Governor of Rajasthan.
• (3) The Governor of Rajasthan can remove the Chairman or any member of the Commission from his office on the ground of misbehaviour.
• (4) A member of the Commission may hold his office for a term of six years from the date on which he enters upon his office or until he attains the age of sixty-five years, whichever is earlier.

Correct Answer: (1) The Chairman and other members of the Rajasthan Public Service Commission are appointed by the Governor of Rajasthan.

13. What was the main objective of the Rajasthan Secretariat Reorganisation Committee (1969)?

• (1) Construction of Secretariat building
• (2) Recruitment of employees
• (3) Review of the cell system
• (4) Preparation of budget

Correct Answer: (3) Review of the cell system

14. Who is the Chairman of Gram Panchayat Planning and Coordination Committee?

• (1) Village Development Officer
• (2) Sarpanch
• (3) Member of Panchayat Samiti in whose constituency that village is situated.
• (4) Up-Sarpanch

Correct Answer: (2) Sarpanch

15. On the recommendations of which Committee, the Rajasthan State Legislative Assembly discuss the report of the Commissioner for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes laid on the table of the House?

• (1) Committee on Welfare of Scheduled Caste
• (2) Business Advisory Committee
• (3) General Purpose Committee
• (4) Committee on Welfare of Backward Classes

Correct Answer: (1) Committee on Welfare of Scheduled Caste

16. Read carefully the following statements regarding Rajasthan State Human Rights Commission and choose the correct statement:

• (1) The notification for its formation was issued by the State government in October 1994.
• (2) Rajasthan State Human Rights Commission is active since January 1995.
• (3) Initially there was a provision for a Chairman and six members.
• (4) The Commission has its own investigation agency which is headed by at the minimum a Inspector General of Police rank officer.

Correct Answer: (4) The Commission has its own investigation agency which is headed by at the minimum a Inspector General of Police rank officer.

17. Rising Rajasthan-Partnership Conclave-2025 is proposed to be organized on -

• (1) 09 and 10 December 2025
• (2) 10 and 11 December 2025
• (3) 11 and 12 December 2025
• (4) 13 and 14 December 2025

Correct Answer: (2) 10 and 11 December 2025

18. Why was Gadisar Lake in the news in the state in June 2025?

• (1) Being declared a Ramsar site
• (2) Being made the mascot of the South Asia Wetlands Conference
• (3) Closing ceremony of the Vande Ganga Jal Sanrakshan Jan Abhiyan
• (4) Discovery of a rare species of fish

Correct Answer: (4) Discovery of a rare species of fish

19. In which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India (Related to the State Legislature) provide for resolutions, having statutory effect?
(A) 169, (B) 179(C), (C) 183(C)

• (1) Only (A) and (B) are correct.
• (2) Only (A) and (C) are correct.
• (3) Only (B) and (C) are correct.
• (4) (A), (B) and (C) are correct.

Correct Answer: (1) Only (A) and (B) are correct.

20. How many Pravasi Rajasthani were honored in the 29th state level Bhamashah Samman Ceremony held in June 2025 for organizing Pravasi Rajasthani Shiksha Sammelan?

• (1) 35
• (2) 21
• (3) 15
• (4) 11

Correct Answer: (3) 15

21. In July 2025 prior to the swearing-in of Chief Justice of Rajasthan, who read out the warrant of appointment and notification issued by President Droupadi Murmu appointing Chief Justice of the Rajasthan High Court?

• (1) Chief Secretary of Rajasthan Sudhansh Pant
• (2) Ex-Chief Justice of Rajasthan Manindra Mohan Shrivastava
• (3) Registrar General of High Court Chanchal Mishra
• (4) Chief Minister of Rajasthan Bhajan Lal Sharma

Correct Answer: (1) Chief Secretary of Rajasthan Sudhansh Pant

22. Consider the following statements with reference to Rajasthan City Gas Distribution Policy 2025 and choose the correct option:
Statement A: A state level committee headed by the director of the department will be formed to implement this policy.
Statement B: This policy will remain effective till March 31, 2030 or until another policy comes into force.

• (1) Both statements A and B are true.
• (2) Only statement A is true.
• (3) Only statement B is true.
• (4) Both statements A and B are false.

Correct Answer: (1) Both statements A and B are true.

23. Who secured the Gold Medal from Rajasthan in the World Police and Fire Games 2025, Javelin throw (18-29 category) event held at Birmingham?

• (1) Uma Chowdhary
• (2) Veeneta Sahu
• (3) Neelam Chowdhary
• (4) Neeru Kapadia

Correct Answer: (4) Neeru Kapadia

24. In which city of Rajasthan was the 12th Regional 3R and Circular Economy Forum in Asia and the Pacific organized?

• (1) Udaipur
• (2) Jodhpur
• (3) Jaipur
• (4) Bikaner

Correct Answer: (3) Jaipur

25. The Rajasthan Government is arranging free pilgrimages to the places associated with the life of Dr. Baba Saheb Ambedkar. Which of the following statements is not correct in this regard?

• (1) Person should not be Income tax-payer.
• (2) The benefits of this scheme will be available to the natives of Rajasthan belonging to the Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe category.
• (3) In this scheme, a tour of five historical places related to the life of Baba Saheb will be organized.
• (4) The entire expense of this tour including accommodation and food will be borne by the State Government.

Correct Answer: (2) The benefits of this scheme will be available to the natives of Rajasthan belonging to the Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe category.

26. Who secured first position with a timing of 21.41 seconds in the Men's 200 m Run event in the Rajasthan State Senior Athletics Championship 2025 held on 18th and 19th of June 2025 at Ajmer?

• (1) Ankit Kumar Kaswan
• (2) Ankit Chouhan
• (3) Kartar Singh
• (4) Mukul Gupta

Correct Answer: (1) Ankit Kumar Kaswan

27. In which of the following countries Apennine Mountain Range is located?

• (1) Germany
• (2) Italy
• (3) Greece
• (4) France

Correct Answer: (2) Italy

28. What is the direction of Westerlies in Northern and Southern hemisphere respectively?

• (1) North-East to South-West and South-West to North-East
• (2) North-East and North-West
• (3) South-West to North-East and North-West to South-East
• (4) South-East and South-West

Correct Answer: (3) South-West to North-East and North-West to South-East

29. Rajasthan State Cooperative Marketing Federation Limited has signed an MoU in July 2025 to take the products of the state's cooperative societies to the international market with -

• (1) National Cooperative Trading Limited
• (2) National Cooperative Organics Limited
• (3) National Cooperative Union of India Limited
• (4) National Cooperative Exports Limited

Correct Answer: (4) National Cooperative Exports Limited

30. Among the following, which indicators are the part of Trade Related to Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS)?
A. Copyrights, B. Trademarks, C. Patents, D. Geographical indications

• (1) A, B and D
• (2) B, C and D
• (3) A, B and C
• (4) A, B, C and D

Correct Answer: (4) A, B, C and D

31. As per the World Population Prospectus - 2024, which among the following country is not included in world's top five populated countries?

• (1) USA
• (2) Nigeria
• (3) Indonesia
• (4) Pakistan

Correct Answer: (4) Pakistan

32. In COP-29 UN Climate Conference, the funding to developing countries for protecting lives and livelihoods has been increased by -

• (1) two times
• (2) three times
• (3) four times
• (4) six times

Correct Answer: (4) six times

33. The 'Sea-Saw Pattern' of meteorological changes observed between the Pacific and Indian Oceans is known as:

• (1) Koteshwaram circulation
• (2) Hadley cell
• (3) Walker circulation
• (4) Pierre cell

Correct Answer: (3) Walker circulation

34. Which of the following plateau is drained by river Damodar?

• (1) Shillong Plateau
• (2) Chhotanagpur Plateau
• (3) Dandkaranya Plateau
• (4) Baghelkhand Plateau

Correct Answer: (2) Chhotanagpur Plateau

35. Match List-l with List-ll and select the correct answer using codes given below:
List-l (Island) A. North Andaman, B. South Andaman, C. Great Nicobar, D. Middle Andaman
List-ll (Peak) i. Mount Koyob, ii. Mount Thuiller, iii. Saddle Peak, iv. Mount Diavolo

• (1) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
• (2) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
• (3) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
• (4) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii

Correct Answer: (2) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv

36. Arrange the following oil refineries in correct East to West order as per their location:
A. Numaligarh, B. Bongaigaon, C. Guwahati, D. Digboi

• (1) B, A, C, D
• (2) D, A, C, B
• (3) C, B, A, D
• (4) A, D, B, C

Correct Answer: (2) D, A, C, B

37. Which of the following programme was introduced in India after independence to prevent sub-division and fragmentation of land-holdings?

• (1) Community development programme
• (2) Diversification of land-holdings
• (3) Abolition of intermediaries
• (4) Programmes of cooperation and consolidation of land-holdings

Correct Answer: (4) Programmes of cooperation and consolidation of land-holdings

38. In Which of the following areas of India the Tropical Wet Evergreen Forest is not found?

• (1) Western part of Western Ghats
• (2) North-East India
• (3) Ganga Delta
• (4) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Correct Answer: (3) Ganga Delta

39. Read the following statements with regard to state-wise analysis of Service sector performance in India in Financial Year 2023 and select Correct answer using codes given below:
(i) Maharashtra accounts for more than 20 percent of total service Sector gross state value added of all the states.
(ii) Karnataka, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh and Gujarat together, share more than 50 percent of total service sector gross state value added of all the states.

• (1) Only (i) is correct.
• (2) Only (ii) is correct.
• (3) Both (i) and (ii) are correct.
• (4) Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct.

Correct Answer: (3) Both (i) and (ii) are correct.

40. Match List-l with List-ll and select the correct answer using codes given below:
List-I (Product) i. Cotton, Silk and man-made fibre, ii. Pharmaceuticals, iii. Milk, iv. Meat
List-II (Rank of India in World's Production) a. 8th, b. 1st, c. 2nd, d. 3rd

• (1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
• (2) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
• (3) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
• (4) i-a, ii-d, iii-b, iv-c

Correct Answer: (3) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a

41. What was India's share in world exports in the year 2022 as per Economic Survey 2024-25?

• (1) 1.6 percent
• (2) 1.8 percent
• (3) 2.0 percent
• (4) 2.2 percent

Correct Answer: (2) 1.8 percent

42. Choose right code regarding the correct statements as regards Government of India Act, 1919:
A. It was the codified version of the Montague-Chelmsford reforms named after Edwin Charles Montague and Lord Chelmsford, who held positions of the Secretary of State and Viceroy of British India respectively.
B. The Indian National Congress rejected the Act.
C. Mahatma Gandhi termed the Act as 'unworthy of England to offer and India to accept'.
D. A notable feature of the document was a clause that called for a review of the Act's working after a period of 10 years.

• (1) Only A, B and D are correct.
• (2) Only B, C and D are correct.
• (3) Only A, C and D are correct.
• (4) Only A and B are correct.

Correct Answer: (3) Only A, C and D are correct.

43. Which country was largest trading partner of India in 2023-24 as per Economic Survey 2024-25?

• (1) USA
• (2) China P R
• (3) UAE
• (4) Germany

Correct Answer: (1) USA

44. Which feature of India's constitution is reflected by an elected President?

• (1) Parliamentary form of Government
• (2) Federalism
• (3) Secular State
• (4) Republic

Correct Answer: (4) Republic

45. Through which Constitutional Amendment Act, the President's assent has been made mandatory on the Constitutional Amendment Bill?

• (1) 24th
• (2) 42nd
• (3) 43rd
• (4) 44th

Correct Answer: (1) 24th

46. Identify the correct group of Provinces, which were provisioned to have Bi-cameral Provincial Legislature under the Government of India Act, 1935:

• (1) Madras, United Provinces, Sind
• (2) Bombay, Bengal, Bihar
• (3) United Provinces, Orissa, Bombay
• (4) Bengal, Sind, Assam

Correct Answer: (2) Bombay, Bengal, Bihar

47. Which of the following Articles were inserted in the Directive Principles of State Policy by the Constitution (Forty Second Amendment) Act, 1976?
(i) 39-A, (ii) 43-B, (iii) 46-A, (iv) 48-A

• (1) Only (i) and (iv)
• (2) Only (i) and (ii)
• (3) Only (i), (ii) and (iv)
• (4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) all

Correct Answer: (3) Only (i), (ii) and (iv)

48. Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to return a non-money bill passed by Parliament for reconsideration?

• (1) Article 107
• (2) Article 109
• (3) Article 110
• (4) Article 111

Correct Answer: (4) Article 111

49. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court state that the Parliament has the authority to amend any part of the Constitution, including any fundamental rights and if the Constitution makers intended to exclude the fundamental right from the scope of amending power, they would have made a clear provision in that behalf?

• (1) A.K. Gopalan v. The State of Madras (1950)
• (2) Sri Shankari Prasad Singh Deo v. Union of India and State of Bihar (1951)
• (3) State of West Bengal v. Union of India (1963)
• (4) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan (1965)

Correct Answer: (2) Sri Shankari Prasad Singh Deo v. Union of India and State of Bihar (1951)

50. Which of the following condition is Correct to recognise a political party as a National Party?

• (1) If a party wins 4% of seats in the Lok Sabha from at least 4 different States.
• (2) If a party wins 6% of seats in the Lok Sabha from at least 3 different States.
• (3) If a party wins 2% of seats in the Lok Sabha from at least 3 different States.
• (4) If a party wins 2% of seats in the Lok Sabha from at least 4 different States.

Correct Answer: (3) If a party wins 2% of seats in the Lok Sabha from at least 3 different States.

51. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Deputy Prime Minister - Prime Minister

• (1) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel - Jawaharlal Nehru
• (2) Morarji Desai - Indira Gandhi
• (3) Ch. Devi Lal - Charan Singh
• (4) Charan Singh - Morarji Desai

Correct Answer: (4) Charan Singh - Morarji Desai

52. What among the following is not included in the principle of Non-Alignment in India's Foreign Policy?

• (1) Non-commitment towards power blocks
• (2) Independence in Foreign Policy
• (3) Neutrality towards world affairs
• (4) Asserting Peaceful co-existence

Correct Answer: (3) Neutrality towards world affairs

53. India signed an agreement with Sri Lanka in 1974 desiring to determine the boundary line in the historic water between both countries. Which of the following island is specially mentioned in this treaty?

• (1) Mannar Island
• (2) Katchatheevu Island
• (3) Pigeon Island
• (4) Pamban Island

Correct Answer: (2) Katchatheevu Island

54. Which of the following are the allied organisations of FICCI (Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry)?
(A) All India Organisation of Employers (AIOE), (B) Indian Council of Arbitration (ICA), (C) Confederation of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (CMSME)

• (1) (A), (B) and (C) are correct.
• (2) Only (A) and (B) are correct.
• (3) Only (A) and (C) are correct.
• (4) Only (B) and (C) are correct.

Correct Answer: (2) Only (A) and (B) are correct.

55. "I should like to state to this General Assembly, on behalf of my people and my government, that we adhere completely and absolutely to the principles and purpose of the United Nations Charter and that we shall try, to the best of our ability, to work for the realization of those principles and purposes." Who among the following prime ministers of India said this statement to the UN General Assembly?

• (1) Jawaharlal Nehru
• (2) Lal Bahadur Shastri
• (3) Morarji Desai
• (4) Atal Bihari Vajpayee

Correct Answer: (1) Jawaharlal Nehru

56. After the Doha Round of talks were suspended in July 2006 in World Trade Organisation, an alternative group of six was created, which is called 'Oslo Group'. This group does not include:

• (1) New Zealand
• (2) Pakistan
• (3) Kenya
• (4) Canada

Correct Answer: (2) Pakistan

57. Which one of the following statements is not correct regarding the BRICS?

• (1) Brazil assumed the BRICS chairship on 1st January, 2025.
• (2) The theme of the BRICS Summit-2025 was "Strengthening Global South Cooperation for more Inclusive and Sustainable Governance."
• (3) India organised 13th BRICS Summit in 2021.
• (4) The theme and approach for BRICS Summit-2021 was "BRICS@21: Intra BRICS Cooperation for Continuity, Consolidation and Consensus"

Correct Answer: (2) The theme of the BRICS Summit-2025 was "Strengthening Global South Cooperation for more Inclusive and Sustainable Governance."

58. In which of the following areas the significance of Educational Psychology is clearly visible?
(a) In understanding the developmental characteristics of students.
(b) In understanding individual differences among students.
(c) In identification of effective teaching methods.
(d) In construction of curriculum.

• (1) (a), (c) and (d) are correct but (b) is not correct.
• (2) (b), (c) and (d) are correct but (a) is not correct.
• (3) (d) is correct but (a), (b) and (c) are not correct.
• (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct.

Correct Answer: (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct.

59. The scope of Educational Psychology can be categorized under different categories. Knowledge of growth and development can be categorized under which category?

• (1) Learner
• (2) Learning Situations and Environment
• (3) Teacher
• (4) The Learning Process

Correct Answer: (1) Learner

60. According to Piaget, at which stage of cognitive development does the development of language in children starts properly and the language starts becoming the medium of expression?

• (1) Sensory motor stage
• (2) Concrete operational stage
• (3) Pre-operational stage
• (4) Formal operational stage

Correct Answer: (3) Pre-operational stage

61. According to Kohlberg's moral development theory, 'Self-serving reciprocity' is the characteristic of which phase of moral development?

• (1) Social contract orientation
• (2) Instrumental relativist orientation
• (3) Punishment and obedience orientation
• (4) Maintaining social order orientation

Correct Answer: (2) Instrumental relativist orientation

62. Assertion (A): In concrete operational stage, concrete logic become possible when the children understand operation.
Reason (R): Operations are set of powerful rules that can transform information from one to another.

• (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the corect explanation for (A).
• (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A).
• (3) (A) is true and (R) is false.
• (4) (R) is true and (A) is false.

Correct Answer: (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the corect explanation for (A).

63. Which of the following is a correct statement about learning?

• (1) Learning is a product, not a process.
• (2) Learning refers to those changes that occur as a result of practice and experiences.
• (3) Behaviour change through maturation is also called learning.
• (4) Learning is relatively temporary change in behaviour.

Correct Answer: (2) Learning refers to those changes that occur as a result of practice and experiences.

64. Teacher is dramatizing a problematic situation focussed on instructional task for Mental readiness of the learners. The teacher is in which step as per 5E approach of constructivism?

• (1) Explain
• (2) Elaborate
• (3) Engage
• (4) Explore

Correct Answer: (3) Engage

65. Which of the following is not related to the Bio-physical approach of personality?

• (1) Hippocrates
• (2) Galen
• (3) Sheldon
• (4) Allpot

Correct Answer: (4) Allpot

66. Albert Bandura found in his studies that learning can take place without actual performance (a kind of latent learning). This is referred to as-

• (1) Insight learning
• (2) Cognitive learning
• (3) Learning distinction
• (4) Trial and Error learning

Correct Answer: (2) Cognitive learning

67. When an adult adapts his desires, motivations and behaviour to the desires, motivations and behaviour of childhood, it is called:

• (1) Conversion
• (2) Regression
• (3) Identification
• (4) Sublimation

Correct Answer: (2) Regression

68. According to the Triarchic Intelligence Theory of Sternberg, the mental process of formulation of hypothesis by a student regarding his problem is included under which components?

• (1) Knowledge acquisition Components
• (2) Meta components
• (3) Performance components
• (4) Contextual components

Correct Answer: (2) Meta components

69. A teacher notices in a class that a child shows strong spatial intelligence. Which activity would best support this child's learning?

• (1) Memorizing historical dates
• (2) Solving mathematical problems
• (3) Designing three dimensional model
• (4) Writing essays

Correct Answer: (3) Designing three dimensional model

70. Which of the following statement is not correct in the context of 16 Personality factors questionnaire?

• (1) It is based on type approach.
• (2) It includes sixteen bipolar factors.
• (3) It is based on trait approach.
• (4) It is not a projective test.

Correct Answer: (1) It is based on type approach.

71. Kirti always feels excitement and takes challenge in playing badminton. She was taking part in a tournament but as she started playing, there was a cramp in her left leg, but despite of the pain and discomfort she managed to finish the game and won. Which kind of motivation she had?

• (1) Extrinsic
• (2) Acquired
• (3) Secondary
• (4) Intrinsic

Correct Answer: (4) Intrinsic

72. An acquired motivation by which a child performs his work in such a way that he can get maximum success is called:

• (1) Affiliation motivation
• (2) Achievement motivation
• (3) Approval motivation
• (4) Power motivation

Correct Answer: (2) Achievement motivation

73. Which of the following actions done by the teacher does not indicate the importance of individual differences?

• (1) Providing interesting homework
• (2) Providing vocational guidance
• (3) To set same performance level for all
• (4) Vary teaching methods

Correct Answer: (3) To set same performance level for all

74. Piyush is having skills in managing emotions of others. This observation indicates which component of Emotional Intelligence?

• (1) Emotional Quotient
• (2) Intrapersonal Awareness
• (3) Interpersonal Management
• (4) Intrapersonal Management

Correct Answer: (3) Interpersonal Management

75. Which one of the following is not suitable for bringing change in attitude of an individual?

• (1) Attractive and appealing information were communicated to the individual.
• (2) Attitude change is advocated through group discussion.
• (3) Public commitment about his/her attitude and beliefs bring more change in attitude through additional information.
• (4) Attitude change is greater when an individual receives information through active participation.

Correct Answer: (3) Public commitment about his/her attitude and beliefs bring more change in attitude through additional information.

76. The motivational power that helps us in achieving the desired objective by attracting our attention and keeping it focused on a particular object, stimulus or task is called:

• (1) Interest
• (2) Attitude
• (3) Habit
• (4) Self-concept

Correct Answer: (1) Interest

77. Which of the following provision is useful for education of gifted children?
a. Enrichment Programme, b. Acceleration, c. Pullout Approach, d. Remedial Instruction

• (1) a & b only
• (2) c & d only
• (3) a, b & c only
• (4) a, b & d only

Correct Answer: (3) a, b & c only

78. The 40 cm isohyet passes through which group of districts of Rajasthan?

• (1) Dausa, Tonk, Bhilwara
• (2) Alwar, Jaipur, Udaipur
• (3) Sikar, Nagaur, Jalore
• (4) Sikar, Ajmer, Sirohi

Correct Answer: (3) Sikar, Nagaur, Jalore

79. Which of the following is a right bank tributary of river Banas?

• (1) Kothari
• (2) Berach
• (3) Khari
• (4) Dai

Correct Answer: (4) Dai

80. In which type of forest Dhokra, Palash, Tendu and Semal trees are found?

• (1) Dry Teak forests
• (2) Tropical Thorn forests
• (3) Mixed Deciduous forests
• (4) Sub-tropical Evergreen forests

Correct Answer: (3) Mixed Deciduous forests

81. 'Raj-171' and 'Moti' are hybrid varieties of -

• (1) Maize
• (2) Pearl Millet (Bajra)
• (3) Sorghum
• (4) Wheat

Correct Answer: (2) Pearl Millet (Bajra)

82. Which among the following facts is not true about the Aravalli mountains?

• (1) It is one of the oldest mountains in the world.
• (2) It is comparable with the Rocky mountains of USA.
• (3) It was formed in Pre-Cambrian period.
• (4) Presently Aravalli is in the form of residual hills.

Correct Answer: (2) It is comparable with the Rocky mountains of USA.

83. As per Census-2011, out of the following which district has the highest percentage of urban population in their total population?

• (1) Jodhpur
• (2) Bikaner
• (3) Churu
• (4) Ajmer

Correct Answer: (4) Ajmer

84. Saint Gobain Glass Factory is a/an (A) company and its unit is located at (B).

• (1) (A) French (B) Bhiwadi
• (2) (A) German (B) Dholpur
• (3) (A) Japanese (B) Kota
• (4) (A) American (B) Behror

Correct Answer: (1) (A) French (B) Bhiwadi

85. Match List-l with List-ll and select the correct answer using code given below:
List-I (Tourist Centre) A. Delwara, B. Nakoda, C. Rameshwar Dham, D. Tripura Sundari
List-II (Location) i. Balotra, ii. Banswara, iii. Abu Mountain, iv. Sawai Madhopur

• (1) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
• (2) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
• (3) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
• (4) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii

Correct Answer: (1) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii

86. Which of the following breed of cattle is known for milk production as well as for good ox and are largely reared in Barmer, Pali, Sirohi and Sanchor?

• (1) Kankrej
• (2) Rathi
• (3) Malvi
• (4) Gir

Correct Answer: (1) Kankrej

87. Which among the following is an archaeological site of 'Painted Grey Ware' culture?

• (1) Kalibanga
• (2) Ahar
• (3) Ganeshwar
• (4) Bairath

Correct Answer: (4) Bairath

88. Which one of the following archaeological site is not associated with Ahar culture?

• (1) Balathal
• (2) Gilund
• (3) Bagore
• (4) Ojiyana

Correct Answer: (3) Bagore

89. Rajil was associated with which branch of Pratihars?

• (1) Rajogarh
• (2) Ujjain
• (3) Jalore
• (4) Mandore

Correct Answer: (4) Mandore

90. The Chauhans were not associated with which of the following place?

• (1) Nadol
• (2) Jalore
• (3) Ranthambore
• (4) Lodrva

Correct Answer: (4) Lodrva

91. Who was the ruler of Jalore during the campaign of Sultan Iltutmish?

• (1) Kirtipal
• (2) Samant Singh
• (3) Uday Singh
• (4) Kanhad Dev

Correct Answer: (3) Uday Singh

92. With reference to Bhil tribe, 'Pal' is -

• (1) House of a Bhil
• (2) Head of the Bhil village
• (3) Bhil village
• (4) A group of eight to ten houses

Correct Answer: (3) Bhil village

93. Who among the following rulers fought "The Battle of Ranisar" with the Mughals in 1565 A.D.?

• (1) Maharana Pratap
• (2) Rao Chandrasen
• (3) Raj Singh
• (4) Maharana Sanga

Correct Answer: (2) Rao Chandrasen

94. Which one of the following persons was assassinated along with Resident Major Burton during the attack on British residency by revolutionaries at Kota in struggle of 1857 A.D.?

• (1) Mac Mason
• (2) Sadlar
• (3) Political Agent Mach Farson
• (4) Nixon

Correct Answer: (2) Sadlar

95. Under whose leadership the Civil Disobedience Movement was launched in February, 1939 to give lawful recognition to Jaipur Prajamandal?

• (1) Gulab Chand Chowdhry
• (2) Jamna Lal Bajaj
• (3) Kundan Lal
• (4) Raj Kumar Hardayal

Correct Answer: (2) Jamna Lal Bajaj

96. Who among the following had granted Ajmer, Parbatsar and Baneda Parganas as Jagir to Karamchand Panwar?

• (1) Maharana Sanga
• (2) Maharana Pratap
• (3) Rao Chandrasen
• (4) Rai Singh

Correct Answer: (4) Rai Singh

97. Under which title was the 21 points demand letter of the Bhils presented to the Maharana of Mewar by Motilal Tejawat?

• (1) Bhil Sandesh
• (2) Bhomat-ri-Baat
• (3) Eki Vachan
• (4) Mewar Pukar

Correct Answer: (4) Mewar Pukar

98. Which among the following person from Matsya Union was included in the cabinet led by Heeralal Shastri of Greater Union?

• (1) Lala Kashi Ram
• (2) Babu Shobha Ram
• (3) Master Bhola Nath
• (4) Inderjeet Singh Azad

Correct Answer: (2) Babu Shobha Ram

99. Which one of the following pairs of folk deities is not correctly matched?
Folk Deities - Clan

• (1) Harbuji - Panwar
• (2) Pabuji - Rathore
• (3) Gogaji - Chauhan
• (4) Ramdevji - Tanwar

Correct Answer: (1) Harbuji - Panwar

100. When was the "Bikaner Rajya Praja Parishad" in Prajamandal Movement established?

• (1) 1942 A.D.
• (2) 1944 A.D.
• (3) 1943 A.D.
• (4) 1938 A.D.

Correct Answer: (3) 1943 A.D.

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